Free Practice

Free Alabama Life Insurance & Annuities Practice Questions

Real questions in the style of the Alabama Life Insurance & Annuities licensing exam, pulled straight from the TESTivity course, each with a plain-English explanation. Start with the Alabama-specific rules below, then work the rest, and unlock the full simulator when you're ready to drill.

Questions on exam125
Passing score70%
Test providerU of A
Time limit2 hr 30 min
Pass rate62%

That's right — 38% of test-takers do not pass the Alabama Life Insurance & Annuities exam on their first attempt. Make sure you're part of the 62% who do.

First-time pass rate: 62% · Source: NAIC, 2024 (most recent available statistics)

Practice Modes

Choose your practice mode

Same questions as the chapters below, re-dealt as a real test. Nothing to sign up for.

Simulate the Exam

A timed, scored run with no hints — the way test day actually feels.

  • 50 questions, timed
  • No feedback until you submit
  • Flag questions and come back
  • Scored against the real 70% standard

Quiz Mode

Answer, find out immediately, read why. Best for learning the material.

  • 25 questions, untimed
  • Instant right/wrong on every question
  • Plain-English explanation each time
  • Running score as you go

Fresh shuffle every time you start.

Build Your Own Practice Test

Drill only the chapters that are costing you points.

  • Pick any chapters you want
  • 5 to 150 questions
  • Timed or untimed, your call
  • Instant feedback on or off

Keeps your selection.

Just want to study with the answers showing? Every chapter on this page is open-book review mode — open one and start reading.

1 Insurance Basics & Foundational Concepts

Question 1

Which type of risk is the only kind that insurance is designed to cover?

Why

Insurance only deals with pure risk: situations where there's a chance of loss or no loss, but no chance of gain (like your house burning down). Speculative risk involves a chance of loss, no loss, OR gain. That's gambling and investing, and insurers won't touch it. If there's an upside, it's not insurable.

Question 2

Adverse selection refers to the tendency of:

Why

Adverse selection is the insurer's headache: the people most likely to have a loss are also the most eager to buy and keep coverage. If underwriting didn't push back, the risk pool would fill up with bad risks and the math would collapse. It's exactly why underwriting and exclusions exist.

Question 3

A reinsurance arrangement in which the reinsurer automatically accepts all risks of a certain type from the ceding insurer is called:

Why

Treaty reinsurance is the automatic, blanket deal: the reinsurer agrees in advance to take a whole category of risks. Facultative is the opposite, case-by-case, where the reinsurer can accept or decline each risk individually. Treaty equals automatic and broad; facultative equals optional and specific.

Question 4

In a reinsurance transaction, the insurer that transfers risk to the reinsurer is known as the:

Why

The company giving away (ceding) the risk is the ceding company; the company taking it on is the reinsurer. Easy hook: to 'cede' is to give up, so the one giving up the risk is the ceding company.

Question 5

An agent who represents only one insurance company and does not own the policy expirations is typically called a:

Why

A captive (or exclusive) agent represents a single insurer, and that insurer owns the book of business. An independent agent represents multiple companies and owns their own expirations (the renewal rights). The ownership-of-expirations detail is the classic distinguisher.

Question 6

An agent who collects premiums on behalf of an insurer holds those funds in a:

Why

Premiums an agent collects belong to the insurer, not the agent, so the agent holds them in a fiduciary capacity, a position of financial trust. Mixing that money with personal funds (commingling) is a big no-no and a fast way to lose a license.

Question 7

The authority specifically granted to an agent in the agency contract is known as:

Why

Express authority is the authority written right into the agency agreement, the powers the insurer explicitly hands the agent. Implied authority fills in the gaps needed to use that express authority, and apparent authority is what the public reasonably assumes. Express equals expressly stated.

Question 8

An insurance broker legally represents the:

Why

A broker works for the insured, shopping the market on the client's behalf, while an agent works for the insurer. Same exam, different masters: keep them straight. Broker equals the buyer's side; agent equals the company's side.

Question 9

Insurance contracts are considered 'unilateral' because:

Why

Unilateral means only one side makes a legally enforceable promise, and it's the insurer, who promises to pay covered claims. The insured doesn't actually promise to keep paying premiums; they just won't get coverage if they stop. One enforceable promise equals unilateral.

Question 10

The intentional failure to disclose a known material fact when applying for insurance is called:

Why

Concealment is staying silent about a material fact you know the insurer would want, and if it's intentional, it can void the policy. It's the sin-of-omission version of misrepresentation (which is an active false statement). Both turn on the fact being 'material,' meaning it would have affected the insurer's decision.

2 Life Insurance Basics

Question 1

Under an executive bonus (Section 162) plan, the life insurance policy is owned by:

Why

In a Section 162 executive bonus plan, the employer pays the premium as a bonus, but the executive owns the policy and names the beneficiary. The bonus is tax-deductible to the employer and taxable income to the executive. The big perk: the employee keeps the policy even if they leave.

Question 2

Which of the following is a common personal use of life insurance?

Why

On the personal side, life insurance commonly covers final expenses, replaces lost income for a family, pays off a mortgage, and provides liquidity so heirs can cover estate taxes without selling assets in a hurry. Insuring equipment or buildings is property insurance, not life.

Question 3

The needs approach to calculating life insurance focuses on:

Why

The needs approach tallies up the actual bills the family faces if the insured dies: final expenses, paying off the mortgage, an income fund for survivors, kids' education, an emergency cushion. Add them up, subtract existing resources, and the gap is how much coverage is needed.

Question 4

Which factor would tend to increase a life insurance premium?

Why

Higher mortality means more expected claims, so it drives premium up. Higher assumed interest does the opposite, lowering premium because the insurer expects to earn more on your money. Lower expenses and a younger insured both push premium down. Mortality up equals premium up.

Question 5

The 'loading' added to a net premium to arrive at the gross premium covers the insurer's:

Why

Net premium covers mortality and interest. Loading is the extra piled on top for the insurer's expenses, commissions, overhead, and margin, so net premium plus loading equals the gross premium you actually pay. Loading equals the cost of doing business.

Question 6

An applicant pays the initial premium with the application and receives a conditional receipt. Coverage will generally become effective:

Why

A conditional receipt offers coverage back to the application or exam date, but only on the condition that the applicant turns out to be insurable as applied. If they qualify, they're covered from that earlier date, even if they die before the policy is formally issued. The key word is conditional.

Question 7

If the initial premium is NOT paid with the application, the agent typically must collect the premium and obtain which of the following at policy delivery?

Why

No money up front means no conditional receipt, so coverage doesn't start until the policy is delivered and the first premium is paid. To protect the insurer, the agent collects a statement of good health at delivery, confirming the applicant's health hasn't changed since they applied.

Question 8

A 'preferred' risk classification is given to applicants who:

Why

Preferred risks are the gold-star applicants: nonsmokers, healthy weight, clean history, lower-than-average mortality. Because they're cheaper to insure, they earn the lowest premiums. Standard is average, substandard pays more, and declined can't get coverage at all.

Question 9

The Medical Information Bureau (MIB) assists insurers primarily by:

Why

The MIB is a shared database where member insurers post coded information about applicants' health-related findings. If someone fails to disclose a condition on a new application, the MIB can flag the discrepancy. It's a fraud-and-omission check, not a claims payer or rate setter.

Question 10

An inspection report ordered during underwriting typically provides information about the applicant's:

Why

An inspection report (often from a consumer reporting agency) paints a general picture: lifestyle, finances, habits, reputation, usually for larger policies. It's not a medical record (that's the APS or exam) and not a driving record (that's the MVR). Think background sketch, not diagnosis.

3 Life Insurance Policies

Question 1

A key characteristic of term life insurance is that it:

Why

Term is pure, no-frills protection: it covers you for a set period (10, 20, 30 years, or to a certain age) and pays only if you die during that window. No cash value, no investment piece, just the death benefit, which is why it's the cheapest way to buy a big chunk of coverage.

Question 2

Decreasing term insurance is most commonly used to:

Why

With decreasing term, the death benefit shrinks over the term while the premium stays level, which makes it a natural fit for a mortgage: as you pay the loan down, you need less coverage to pay it off. It's cheaper than level term because the insurer's risk drops each year.

Question 3

The conversion privilege in a term life policy allows the insured to:

Why

Convertible term lets you swap your term policy for a permanent one (like whole life) without a new medical exam, even if your health has tanked. The new premium is based on your age at conversion. It's a built-in escape hatch from 'temporary' to 'permanent' coverage.

Question 4

Annual renewable term (ART) insurance is characterized by:

Why

Annual renewable term renews every single year with no evidence of insurability needed, but the premium climbs each year as you age and mortality risk rises. It starts cheap and gets pricier over time, the opposite of a level-premium permanent policy.

Question 5

Which of the following is a feature of whole life insurance?

Why

Whole life is the workhorse of permanent insurance: lifelong coverage, level premiums that never change, a guaranteed death benefit, and guaranteed cash value that builds over time. You pay more than term, but you get permanence plus a savings element with guarantees attached.

Question 6

In a whole life policy, which of the following is guaranteed?

Why

Whole life's selling point is guarantees: the premium won't change, the death benefit is locked, and the cash value follows a guaranteed schedule. Dividends (on participating policies) are never guaranteed, they depend on the insurer's results. Guarantees yes; dividends maybe.

Question 7

If a universal life policyowner stops paying premiums, the policy will:

Why

UL's flexibility means you can skip premiums, but only as long as there's enough cash value to cover the monthly cost-of-insurance and expense charges. When the cash value runs dry and can't cover those deductions, the policy lapses. Flexible isn't the same as free.

Question 8

In group life insurance, the contract is issued to the:

Why

Group life works off a single master contract issued to the employer or sponsoring organization. Individual members don't get their own policy, they get a certificate of coverage showing they're insured under the group plan. One contract, many certificate holders.

Question 9

Compared with individual life insurance, group life insurance typically involves:

Why

Group plans underwrite the group as a whole, not each person, so members usually get coverage with little or no medical underwriting up to a guaranteed issue limit. The large, naturally-formed group spreads the risk, which is why a new employee can often get coverage without an exam.

Question 10

An employee who leaves a job covered by group life insurance generally has the right to:

Why

Group term life carries a conversion privilege: when you leave, you can convert to an individual permanent policy without proving insurability, typically within 31 days, though at individual rates for your age. It's a lifeline for someone who's become hard to insure, even though it usually costs more.

4 Life Insurance Provisions, Options & Riders

Question 1

An insured dies during the policy's grace period without having paid the overdue premium. What does the insurer do?

Why

The grace period (commonly about a month, often 30 or 31 days) keeps the policy in force even after a premium is missed, so coverage doesn't lapse the moment a payment is late. If the insured dies during that window the company still pays; it just subtracts the premium that was owed. The grace period protects against accidental lapse, and the only catch at death is the company collecting what it was already due.

Question 2

Two and a half years after a policy was issued, the insurer discovers the insured made a material misrepresentation on the application. Absent fraud, what can the insurer do?

Why

The incontestability clause says that once a policy has been in force for two years during the insured's lifetime, the company can no longer contest it over misstatements on the application. The point is to protect beneficiaries from a company digging up a minor error years later to dodge a claim. After two years the application is essentially locked, so honest mistakes can't sink the payout. (Outright fraud and nonpayment of premium are the usual exceptions.)

Question 3

After an insured dies, the insurer learns the insured understated their age on the application. How is the claim handled?

Why

The misstatement of age (or sex) provision is a fix-it clause, not a gotcha. Because premium is based on age, the company simply recalculates and pays the death benefit the premiums actually paid would have purchased at the true age. Understate your age and the payout shrinks a bit, but the policy isn't canceled. It adjusts the benefit; it doesn't kill the claim.

Question 4

A primary beneficiary dies before the insured, and the insured then dies. Who receives the death benefit?

Why

Beneficiaries are arranged in line: the primary is first, and the contingent (secondary) is the backup. If the primary isn't living when the insured dies, the proceeds drop down to the contingent beneficiary. The estate only gets involved when no named beneficiary survives. Think contingent equals contingency plan, the backup who steps in.

Question 5

An insured and the primary beneficiary die in the same car accident, and it can't be determined who died first. Under the Uniform Simultaneous Death Act, how are the proceeds handled?

Why

When the order of death can't be established, the law presumes the insured outlived the beneficiary. That treats the primary beneficiary as having died first, so the proceeds skip to the contingent beneficiary instead of getting tangled up in the primary's estate (and the extra probate and possible double taxation that comes with it). The rule keeps the money flowing to the next living beneficiary rather than a deceased one's estate.

Question 6

An owner uses the policy's cash value as a single premium to buy a smaller whole life policy with no further premiums due. Which nonforfeiture option is this?

Why

With reduced paid-up insurance, the cash value is applied as one lump-sum premium to purchase a fully paid-up policy of the same type, meaning permanent coverage that lasts for life, just at a lower face amount. You keep lifelong protection and never pay another premium. Read the name as a checklist: reduced (smaller face) plus paid-up (no more premiums), and it stays permanent.

Question 7

A policyowner chooses the cash surrender nonforfeiture option. What happens to the coverage?

Why

Cash surrender is the most straightforward option: you take the cash value in hand and the policy ends, with no more coverage. It's the right move when you no longer need the insurance and want the money, but be aware that any gain above total premiums paid can be taxable. Surrender means exactly what it sounds like, you give up the policy entirely in exchange for the cash.

Question 8

An owner leaves dividends with the insurer to earn interest. What is the tax treatment?

Why

Under accumulation at interest, the dividend itself stays a tax-free return of premium, but once it sits with the insurer and earns interest, that interest is taxable income, just like interest in a savings account. So the dividend is tax-free coming back to you; the moment it starts earning, the earnings are fair game for the IRS.

Question 9

A beneficiary wants the proceeds paid out over exactly 10 years. Which settlement option fits?

Why

The fixed period option spreads the proceeds plus interest over a set length of time you choose, say 10 years, and the payment size is simply whatever it takes to empty the fund in that window. Its cousin, fixed amount, instead locks the dollar figure of each payment and lets the time vary. Hook: fixed period, you pick the time; fixed amount, you pick the dollar amount.

Question 10

An accidental death benefit (double indemnity) rider pays an additional amount only when the insured's death results from what?

Why

The accidental death benefit rider, often called double indemnity, pays extra (frequently twice the face amount) only when death is caused by an accident, and usually only if death occurs within a set period (commonly 90 days) of that accident and before a stated age. Death from illness or natural causes pays the base amount only. It's strictly an accident rider, so natural causes don't trigger the bonus.

5 Annuities

Question 1

An annuitant dies during the accumulation phase of a deferred annuity. Who typically receives the contract's value?

Why

If the annuitant dies before income payments begin, the accumulated value generally passes to the named beneficiary, much like a death benefit. The annuity doesn't simply disappear into the insurer's pocket. (Once payments have begun, what's left depends on which payout option was chosen.) Hook: die during the build-up phase, and the beneficiary collects what's been saved.

Question 2

The accumulation phase of a deferred annuity is the period during which what happens?

Why

During accumulation (also called the pay-in or savings phase), the owner contributes money and the contract value grows without being taxed each year. Nothing is paid out yet; the payout, or annuitization, stage comes later. Hook: accumulation equals money going in and compounding tax-deferred.

Question 3

In a variable annuity, how do accumulation units differ from annuity units?

Why

A variable annuity tracks your money in accumulation units while you're paying in, and their value rises and falls with the separate-account subaccounts. When you annuitize, those convert into annuity units, which then determine each variable income payment. Hook: accumulation units are the saving-phase scoreboard, annuity units are the paying-phase scoreboard.

Question 4

A flexible premium deferred annuity allows the owner to do what?

Why

A flexible premium annuity lets you fund it on your own schedule, more this year, less or nothing next, rather than with one fixed lump sum. By definition these are deferred, because you can't keep adding money to a contract that's already paying out. Hook: flexible premium equals flexible deposits, and it's always a deferred contract.

Question 5

A fixed annuity guarantees the owner what?

Why

A fixed annuity promises a guaranteed minimum interest rate during accumulation and a fixed, predictable income at payout. The insurer holds these funds in its general account and shoulders the investment risk. Hook: fixed means fixed, guaranteed numbers, prioritizing safety and predictability over upside.

Question 6

To sell variable annuities, a producer must generally hold what?

Why

Because a variable annuity is both an insurance product and a security, selling it requires dual qualification: a life insurance license from the state plus a securities registration through FINRA, and the prospect must receive a prospectus. Hook: it's part insurance, part investment, so you need both sets of credentials.

Question 7

A life income with period certain option guarantees what?

Why

Life with period certain pays for the annuitant's whole life and adds a guaranteed minimum stretch, say 10 or 20 years. Die inside that window and a beneficiary collects the remaining guaranteed payments; live past it and payments simply continue for life. Hook: lifetime income plus a guaranteed floor of years, so an early death isn't a total loss.

Question 8

A joint and survivor annuity continues paying income for how long?

Why

A joint and survivor option covers two lives, typically a couple, and keeps paying until both have died; the survivor continues to receive income (sometimes reduced, like a 50% or two-thirds survivor benefit). Because it spans two lifetimes, each payment is smaller than a single-life option. Hook: payments last until the second death, so the survivor isn't left without income.

Question 9

A period certain (fixed period) annuity option pays income how?

Why

Period certain isn't a life option at all: it pays for a set number of years (say 10 or 20) regardless of whether the annuitant lives or dies. If the annuitant dies during the period, a beneficiary collects the rest. Hook: period certain is about a certain period of years, not a lifespan.

Question 10

For a partial withdrawal from a nonqualified deferred annuity, the IRS generally treats the money coming out as what?

Why

Nonqualified annuity withdrawals follow LIFO, last in first out, so the IRS treats the taxable earnings as coming out before your original principal. That means an early withdrawal is taxed as ordinary income until all the gain is used up. Hook: gains come out first and get taxed first, your own basis comes out last.

6 Federal Tax Considerations — Life, Annuities & Qualified Plans

Question 1

A life insurance death benefit may be included in the insured's taxable estate when which of the following is true?

Why

Although the death benefit is income-tax-free, it can still be pulled into the insured's taxable estate if the insured kept incidents of ownership, such as the right to change the beneficiary, take a loan, or surrender the policy. Removing those controls (often through an irrevocable life insurance trust) is how planners keep proceeds out of the taxable estate. Hook: income-tax-free is not the same as estate-tax-free, and control is what drags it into the estate.

Question 2

Are premiums on a personally owned life insurance policy generally deductible on the owner's federal income tax return?

Why

Premiums on personal life insurance are paid with after-tax dollars and are not deductible. The trade-off for that is the income-tax-free death benefit on the back end. Hook: no deduction going in, but a tax-free benefit coming out; the IRS won't let you have it both ways.

Question 3

How are policy dividends and the interest they earn under the accumulation option treated for tax?

Why

Because a dividend is treated as a return of overpaid premium, it isn't taxable when paid. But if you leave it to accumulate at interest, that interest is taxable, the same logic found everywhere in tax: your own money back is free, earnings on it are taxed. Hook: dividend equals return of premium (free), interest on it equals earnings (taxed).

Question 4

How are living distributions (such as loans and withdrawals) from a MEC taxed?

Why

Once a policy is a MEC, living distributions are taxed like an annuity: LIFO, so the taxable gain comes out first, and a 10% penalty can apply if you're under age 59 1/2. That's a sharp change from a normal policy, where loans are tax-free. Hook: MEC living benefits are taxed annuity-style, gain first and a possible early-withdrawal penalty.

Question 5

An insured who is certified as terminally ill receives accelerated death benefits from their life policy. How are these benefits generally taxed?

Why

Accelerated (living) benefits paid to a terminally ill insured are generally treated like a tax-free death benefit, since the law recognizes the person is drawing on their own coverage early during a terminal illness. Hook: terminally ill plus accelerated benefits equals tax-free, the same treatment the death benefit itself would receive.

Question 6

Under Section 79, how much employer-provided group term life insurance can an employee receive before the cost of the coverage becomes taxable income?

Why

An employee can receive up to $50,000 of employer-paid group term life with no income tax on the cost of that coverage. Above $50,000, the IRS imputes income based on a standard cost table. Hook: $50,000 is the magic line for tax-free group term life, and the cost of anything above it becomes taxable to the employee.

Question 7

A major tax advantage of a qualified retirement plan is that contributions are generally what?

Why

Qualified plans get favorable tax treatment: contributions are typically pre-tax (deductible to the employer and not currently taxed to the employee), and the money grows tax-deferred until distribution. That's the carrot for meeting the IRS and ERISA rules. Hook: pre-tax in, tax-deferred growth, taxed later, the standard qualified-plan bargain.

Question 8

Distributions from a traditional IRA funded with deductible contributions are generally taxed how?

Why

A traditional IRA gives you the deduction up front and tax-deferred growth, so distributions are taxed as ordinary income when you take them in retirement. Hook: traditional IRA means a tax break now, taxed later as ordinary income.

Question 9

Which of the following is true of a Roth IRA during the original owner's lifetime?

Why

Unlike a traditional IRA, a Roth IRA has no required minimum distributions during the original owner's lifetime, so the money can keep growing tax-free for as long as the owner likes. Hook: no RMDs for the Roth owner; the money can sit and grow untouched.

Question 10

Taking a taxable distribution from a traditional IRA or qualified plan before age 59 1/2 generally results in what, absent an exception?

Why

Pull money out of a traditional IRA or qualified plan before age 59 1/2 and, unless an exception applies, you owe a 10% early-withdrawal penalty in addition to the regular income tax. It's the same 59 1/2 line that applies to annuities. Hook: 59 1/2 is the universal early-access line; cross it early and there's a 10% penalty.

The rest of the Alabama Life system

Tap any tool to see how it works.