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Free Alaska Accident & Health Practice Questions

Real questions in the style of the Alaska Accident & Health licensing exam, pulled straight from the TESTivity course, each with a plain-English explanation. Start with the Alaska-specific rules below, then work the rest, and unlock the full simulator when you're ready to drill.

Questions on exam90
Passing score70
Test providerPearson VUE
Time limit2 hr 15 min
Pass rate62%

That's right — 38% of test-takers do not pass the Alaska Accident & Health exam on their first attempt. Make sure you're part of the 62% who do.

First-time pass rate: 62% · Source: NAIC, 2024 (most recent available statistics)

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1 Insurance Basics & Foundational Concepts

Question 1

Which type of risk is the only kind that insurance is designed to cover?

Why

Insurance only deals with pure risk: situations where there's a chance of loss or no loss, but no chance of gain (like your house burning down). Speculative risk involves a chance of loss, no loss, OR gain. That's gambling and investing, and insurers won't touch it. If there's an upside, it's not insurable.

Question 2

Cans of gasoline stored in a residential garage are an example of a:

Why

A physical hazard is a tangible condition that increases the likelihood or severity of a loss: gasoline in the garage, a slippery floor, frayed wiring. You can see or touch it. If it's an attitude problem it's morale; if it's dishonesty it's moral; if it's a physical thing sitting there raising the odds, it's physical.

Question 3

The law of large numbers is important to insurers because it:

Why

An insurer can't predict whether your house specifically will burn down, but give them a big enough pool of similar homes and they can predict pretty accurately how many out of the whole group will. That's the law of large numbers: more similar exposures, more reliable predictions. It's the statistical engine that makes pricing coverage possible at all.

Question 4

Purchasing an insurance policy is an example of which risk management technique?

Why

Buying insurance is the classic risk transfer: you hand the financial consequences of a loss to the insurer in exchange for a premium. Avoidance means not doing the risky thing at all, retention means keeping the risk yourself (like a deductible), and reduction means lowering the odds or severity (smoke detectors). Insurance equals transfer.

Question 5

The principle of indemnity is best described as:

Why

Indemnity is the whole heartbeat of insurance: you get made whole, not rich. The goal is to put you back where you were financially right before the loss, no better, no worse. That's why you can't insure a $20,000 car for $80,000 and cash in. Insurance reimburses a loss; it doesn't hand out winnings.

Question 6

The primary purpose of reinsurance is to:

Why

Reinsurance is insurance for insurance companies. The original insurer (the ceding company) hands off part of its risk to a reinsurer so one giant loss doesn't sink it. Individuals never deal with reinsurers directly; it all happens behind the scenes between carriers.

Question 7

A reinsurance arrangement in which the reinsurer automatically accepts all risks of a certain type from the ceding insurer is called:

Why

Treaty reinsurance is the automatic, blanket deal: the reinsurer agrees in advance to take a whole category of risks. Facultative is the opposite, case-by-case, where the reinsurer can accept or decline each risk individually. Treaty equals automatic and broad; facultative equals optional and specific.

Question 8

A stock insurance company is owned by its:

Why

A stock insurer is owned by its stockholders (shareholders), who receive taxable dividends when the company profits. Policyholders are just customers. Contrast that with a mutual insurer, which is owned by its policyholders. Stock equals stockholders; mutual equals members/policyholders.

Question 9

An agent who collects premiums on behalf of an insurer holds those funds in a:

Why

Premiums an agent collects belong to the insurer, not the agent, so the agent holds them in a fiduciary capacity, a position of financial trust. Mixing that money with personal funds (commingling) is a big no-no and a fast way to lose a license.

Question 10

The voluntary giving up of a known legal right is known as a:

Why

A waiver is voluntarily surrendering a known right, say, an insurer choosing not to enforce a policy condition. Estoppel is the follow-on: once you've waived something, you can be legally prevented (estopped) from later trying to enforce it. Waiver is the giving up; estoppel is being held to it.

2 Accident & Health Insurance Basics

Question 1

For coverage purposes, a sickness under a health policy is typically defined as an illness that does what?

Why

Most health policies define a covered sickness as one that first appears (manifests) and is contracted while the coverage is in force. This wording is what lets insurers exclude pre-existing conditions that showed up before the policy started. Hook: a covered sickness has to show up on the policy's watch, not before it began.

Question 2

Under an AD&D policy, the capital sum refers to what?

Why

The principal sum is the full benefit, paid for accidental death or for severe losses like both hands or both eyes. The capital sum is a percentage of that principal sum, paid for the loss of a single member or sight in one eye. Hook: principal sum is the whole pie (death or two losses); capital sum is a slice (one loss).

Question 3

Which type of coverage insures a group of people who are not individually named, such as passengers on an airline or students on a field trip?

Why

Blanket coverage protects a constantly changing group whose members aren't named individually, like airline passengers, campers, or a sports team. You're covered simply because you belong to the defined group during the covered activity. Hook: a blanket covers whoever happens to be under it, no individual names required.

Question 4

When must insurable interest exist for an individual health insurance policy?

Why

For health insurance, insurable interest must exist when the policy is applied for; you naturally have it in your own health, and, for example, an employer has it in a key employee. Unlike property insurance, it isn't re-tested at the time of loss. Hook: insurable interest is checked at the start, when the application is taken.

Question 5

Under a noncancelable health policy, the insurer generally may do which of the following until the stated age?

Why

Noncancelable is the strongest renewal guarantee for the insured: the insurer can't cancel, can't refuse renewal, and can't raise the premium beyond what the policy already states, all the way to the stated age. Hook: noncancelable locks everything, coverage and premium alike, in the insured's favor.

Question 6

A deductible in a health insurance policy is best described as what?

Why

The deductible is the insured's upfront share, the amount you pay before the insurer's coverage kicks in for the year. A higher deductible usually means a lower premium, since you're absorbing more of the early cost. Hook: the deductible is what you pay first, before the insurer pays anything.

Question 7

A stop-loss (out-of-pocket maximum) provision does what for the insured?

Why

The stop-loss, or out-of-pocket maximum, protects the insured from runaway costs: once their deductible and coinsurance add up to the cap, the insurer pays 100% of covered charges for the rest of the period. Hook: stop-loss stops the bleeding, since after the cap the insured's share drops to zero.

Question 8

A covered medical bill is $5,000. The policy has a $500 deductible and 80/20 coinsurance, and the out-of-pocket maximum has not yet been reached. How much does the insured pay?

Why

First the insured pays the $500 deductible. That leaves $4,500, which the 80/20 coinsurance splits, so the insured pays 20% of $4,500, or $900. Add the deductible and the coinsurance share: $500 + $900 = $1,400, while the insurer pays the remaining $3,600. Hook: deductible first, then your coinsurance percentage of what's left, so $500 plus $900 equals $1,400.

Question 9

Under the Fair Credit Reporting Act, an applicant must be notified when which of the following may be obtained?

Why

The Fair Credit Reporting Act requires that an applicant be told, in advance, that an investigative consumer report, which gathers information on character, lifestyle, and reputation through interviews, may be obtained. The applicant also has the right to learn the nature and scope of the report. Hook: the FCRA guarantees you advance notice that a lifestyle or reputation report may be pulled.

Question 10

An applicant classified as a substandard (rated) risk will typically experience what?

Why

A substandard, or rated, risk represents a greater-than-average likelihood of claims, so the insurer charges a higher premium (or adjusts the coverage) to offset it, rather than simply declining. Hook: substandard risk means a higher price tag, not an automatic no.

3 Individual A&H Policy Provisions

Question 1

Under the entire contract provision of an individual health policy, the contract consists of what?

Why

The entire contract is just the policy plus the application attached to it. Nothing outside those documents, not the agent's promises and not the company's internal rules, can be made part of the agreement. Hook: if it isn't in the policy or the attached application, it isn't in the contract.

Question 2

Under the entire contract; changes provision, who has the authority to change the terms of a health policy?

Why

Changes to the contract are valid only when approved in writing by an executive officer of the insurer, and even then they must be noted on or attached to the policy. An agent has no power to waive or alter provisions. Hook: only a company officer can change the deal, never the agent at your kitchen table.

Question 3

Under the notice of claim provision, the insured must generally give written notice of a claim within how many days of a loss?

Why

Written notice of claim must be given within 20 days after a covered loss, or as soon as reasonably possible. It simply alerts the insurer that a claim is coming. Hook: 20 days to put the insurer on notice that a loss occurred.

Question 4

After receiving notice of a claim, the insurer must furnish claim forms to the insured within how many days?

Why

The insurer has 15 days after notice of claim to send the claimant the forms used to file proof of loss. Hook: notice of claim starts a 15-day clock for the insurer to provide claim forms.

Question 5

For a disability income claim, how often must benefits be paid under the time of payment of claims provision?

Why

Benefits for a continuing loss like disability must be paid at regular intervals, at least monthly, while the disability lasts, rather than withheld until recovery. Other claims are paid promptly once proof of loss is received. Hook: ongoing disability benefits arrive at least monthly, not held to the end.

Question 6

Under the change of beneficiary provision, the policyowner may change the beneficiary at any time unless what is true?

Why

The owner keeps the right to change the beneficiary unless they've named an irrevocable beneficiary, in which case the beneficiary's written consent is required. Hook: revocable means change freely, irrevocable means you need the beneficiary's okay.

Question 7

The optional relation of earnings to insurance (average earnings) provision applies to disability coverage and does what?

Why

This provision prevents overinsurance on disability claims: if the benefits from all the insured's disability coverage would exceed their actual earnings, the insurer can proportionally reduce its benefit and refund the excess premium. The goal is to keep disability income from becoming more lucrative than working. Hook: it caps disability benefits at your earnings so you can't profit from being disabled.

Question 8

The free look provision in an individual health policy typically gives the insured how long to return the policy for a full refund?

Why

The free look period, commonly 10 days, lets a new policyowner examine the policy and return it for a full premium refund if they decide it isn't right. Hook: about 10 days to look it over and back out for a full refund.

Question 9

In an individual health policy, a pre-existing condition is generally defined as what?

Why

A pre-existing condition is one that was diagnosed, treated, or for which advice was sought (or that a prudent person would have sought treatment for) before the coverage took effect. Policies may limit or exclude such conditions for a time. Hook: pre-existing means it was already on the radar, treated or advised, before coverage began.

Question 10

A probationary (waiting) period in a health policy is best described as what?

Why

A probationary period is an initial stretch, often the first 15 to 30 days after the policy starts, during which sickness-related losses aren't yet covered; it keeps someone from buying a policy after symptoms appear. Accident coverage usually begins right away. Hook: a short waiting period at the start before sickness benefits kick in.

4 Disability Income & Related Insurance

Question 1

An insured with a 60-day elimination period becomes disabled. When do benefits begin to accrue?

Why

No benefits are paid during the elimination period, so with a 60-day elimination period, benefits start accruing only after those 60 days of continuous disability have passed. The insured covers that initial gap themselves. Hook: nothing is paid until the elimination period clock runs out.

Question 2

Under a typical waiver of premium provision in a disability income policy, what happens once the insured has been disabled for the required time (often 90 days)?

Why

Once a disability lasts past the waiver's waiting period (commonly 90 days), the insurer waives further premiums for as long as the disability continues, and often refunds any premiums paid during the waiting period. The policy stays fully in force. Hook: stay disabled long enough and the insurer stops charging premiums, sometimes back to day one.

Question 3

Why do disability income policies generally limit benefits to a percentage of the insured's income rather than 100%?

Why

Insurers cap benefits below full income (and below what you'd net after taxes, since the benefits are often tax-free) so the insured always has a financial reason to recover and return to work. Paying 100% could encourage staying disabled, known as malingering. Hook: benefits stop short of full pay so working still beats collecting.

Question 4

A disability income policy with a Social Security offset (integration) provision does what?

Why

An integrated, or offset, plan coordinates with Social Security disability so the combined payment doesn't exceed the target percentage of income; the policy reduces its benefit (dollar-for-dollar or partially) by what Social Security pays. It controls overinsurance and lowers the premium. Hook: the policy's benefit shrinks by whatever Social Security kicks in.

Question 5

An insured earns $5,000 per month and owns a disability income policy that pays a 60% benefit. Ignoring any other coverage, what is the monthly disability benefit?

Why

The benefit is simply 60% of monthly earned income: 0.60 times $5,000 equals $3,000 per month. The remaining 40% stays uninsured on purpose, preserving the incentive to return to work. Hook: 60% of $5,000 is $3,000, the monthly check.

Question 6

A rehabilitation benefit in a disability income policy is generally designed to do what?

Why

The rehabilitation benefit funds vocational training, education, or similar services that help a disabled insured re-enter the workforce, often while disability benefits continue during the program. It serves both the insured and the insurer, who would rather see a return to work. Hook: it pays to retrain you back into a job.

Question 7

Key person disability insurance is designed to do what for a business?

Why

Key person DI pays the business a benefit when an essential employee is disabled, helping cover lost productivity and the cost of recruiting or training a replacement. The business owns the policy and receives the benefit. Hook: it cushions the company when a key player can't work, much like key person life does at death.

Question 8

To qualify for Social Security disability benefits, a worker generally must be unable to do what?

Why

Social Security uses a strict any-occupation standard: the worker must be unable to engage in any substantial gainful activity, and the condition must be expected to last at least 12 months or end in death. Many private claims would not meet this tough definition. Hook: Social Security disability is the strictest test, no substantial work of any kind, lasting a year or fatal.

Question 9

Social Security disability benefits generally begin only after a waiting period of how long?

Why

Social Security disability imposes a five-month waiting period, so benefits start in the sixth full month of disability. Combined with the strict definition, it makes private disability income coverage important for bridging that gap. Hook: Social Security disability makes you wait five months before the first payment.

Question 10

Group disability income plans are often written on a nonoccupational basis, covering off-the-job disabilities only, primarily because what?

Why

Group plans are commonly nonoccupational because employees are already protected on the job by workers' compensation, so the group plan avoids duplicating that coverage and instead handles off-the-job disabilities. Hook: group DI skips on-the-job claims because workers' comp already has them.

5 Medical Plans

Question 1

Under a usual, customary, and reasonable (UCR) approach, a surgical claim is generally paid based on what?

Why

UCR ties the allowable benefit to what providers in the same area normally charge for that procedure, rather than to a flat schedule. A charge far above the local norm may not be fully covered. Hook: UCR pays the going local rate, not just any billed amount.

Question 2

In a supplementary major medical plan, the corridor deductible refers to the amount the insured pays where?

Why

The corridor deductible is the gap the insured must cover between the exhaustion of the basic plan's benefits and the start of the supplementary major medical benefits. It links the two layers together. Hook: the corridor is the deductible bridge between basic running out and major medical starting.

Question 3

A major medical plan has an 80/20 coinsurance feature and a $2,000 out-of-pocket maximum (in addition to the deductible). Once the insured's coinsurance payments reach $2,000 for the year, what happens?

Why

The out-of-pocket maximum (stop-loss) caps the insured's coinsurance share. Once the insured has paid $2,000 in coinsurance, the plan switches to paying 100% of additional covered charges for the rest of the year, protecting against a catastrophic bill. Hook: hit the out-of-pocket max and your 20% share drops to 0%.

Question 4

A health maintenance organization (HMO) is generally financed through what?

Why

An HMO operates on a prepaid basis: members pay a fixed periodic amount and receive comprehensive services from the HMO's providers, who are often paid by capitation (a set fee per member). It shifts the focus from billing per service to managing care within a fixed budget. Hook: an HMO is prepaid care, a flat fee buys a defined set of services.

Question 5

In a traditional HMO, the primary care physician (PCP) acts as a gatekeeper, meaning the PCP does what?

Why

The gatekeeper PCP manages each member's care and must provide a referral before the member can see a specialist, which keeps utilization, and cost, under control. Hook: in an HMO, you go through the gatekeeper PCP to reach a specialist.

Question 6

HMOs place strong emphasis on which of the following?

Why

Because HMOs are paid a fixed amount per member, keeping members healthy directly benefits the plan, so they emphasize preventive care and wellness, like checkups and screenings, often at little or no cost. Hook: HMOs push prevention because healthy members cost them less.

Question 7

An independent practice association (IPA) model HMO contracts with whom to provide care?

Why

In the IPA model, the HMO contracts with independent doctors (or physician groups) who continue to run their own practices and see non-HMO patients too, rather than employing them directly as in a staff model. Hook: IPA doctors keep their own practices and just contract with the HMO.

Question 8

Compared with a traditional HMO, a PPO generally does what regarding specialist access?

Why

PPOs typically don't use a gatekeeper, so members can go straight to a specialist without first getting a referral from a primary care physician. It's more convenient but usually costs more in premium than an HMO. Hook: no gatekeeper in a PPO, you can self-refer to specialists.

Question 9

Consumer-directed health plans (such as HDHPs paired with HSAs) are designed mainly to do what?

Why

Consumer-directed plans put more decision-making, and more of the early cost, in the consumer's hands, pairing a high deductible with a tax-favored account so people shop more carefully for care. Hook: consumer-directed means you steer the spending, with skin in the game.

Question 10

When a person is covered by two group health plans, the coordination of benefits (COB) provision ensures what?

Why

Coordination of benefits prevents duplicate payment when someone has two plans: one is designated primary and pays first, the other is secondary and may cover the remainder, but the total can't exceed the actual cost. It stops the insured from making money on a claim. Hook: COB keeps two plans from paying more than 100% combined, primary first, secondary second.

6 Group Health Insurance

Question 1

Under experience rating, a large group's premium is based primarily on what?

Why

Experience rating sets a group's premium according to its own claims history, so a group with low claims earns lower rates. It's common for larger groups, while smaller groups are often community rated using a broader pool. Hook: experience rating prices you on your own group's track record.

Question 2

In a contributory group plan, where employees pay part of the premium, insurers typically require what minimum level of participation?

Why

Because employees share the cost in a contributory plan, not everyone signs up, so insurers usually require around 75% participation to guard against adverse selection. Hook: contributory plans need roughly three-quarters in to keep the risk pool healthy.

Question 3

In a noncontributory group plan, what level of eligible-employee participation is generally required, and why?

Why

When the employer pays 100% of the premium (noncontributory), insurers require 100% of eligible employees to be covered. Since employees pay nothing and everyone is in, healthy and unhealthy alike, adverse selection nearly disappears. Hook: the employer pays all, so everyone's in, 100% participation.

Question 4

An employee who declines coverage during the initial enrollment period and later wants to join is generally treated as what?

Why

Someone who passes up the on-time enrollment window becomes a late enrollee and may have to provide evidence of insurability or wait until an open enrollment period to join. The penalty discourages waiting until you're sick to sign up. Hook: enroll late and you may have to prove insurability or wait, the cost of not signing up on time.

Question 5

Under COBRA, an employee who loses group coverage due to termination (other than for gross misconduct) or reduced hours may generally continue coverage for how long?

Why

Termination of employment (except for gross misconduct) or a reduction in hours is an 18-month qualifying event for the employee under COBRA. Hook: lose the job or the hours, get 18 months of COBRA.

Question 6

Under COBRA, which qualifying event generally entitles a spouse or dependent to up to 36 months of continuation?

Why

Events such as divorce or legal separation, the covered employee's death, the employee becoming entitled to Medicare, or a child losing dependent status give the spouse or dependents up to 36 months of COBRA continuation. Hook: family-status events like divorce and death stretch COBRA to 36 months for dependents.

Question 7

Under COBRA, if a qualified beneficiary is determined to be disabled, the standard 18-month continuation period may be extended to how long?

Why

A disability determination (under Social Security rules) during the early part of COBRA can extend the 18-month period to 29 months, and the premium during the extension may rise to as much as 150% of the group rate. Hook: disability stretches COBRA from 18 to 29 months, at a higher premium.

Question 8

HIPAA's portability provisions were designed primarily to do what?

Why

HIPAA aimed to make health coverage more portable, limiting how pre-existing condition exclusions could be applied when someone changed jobs and crediting prior coverage. It also barred group plans from discriminating based on health status. Hook: HIPAA is about portability, carrying coverage from one job to the next without being penalized for prior conditions.

Question 9

Under the common birthday rule for coordinating coverage on a dependent child, the primary plan is the one belonging to the parent whose birthday does what?

Why

The birthday rule makes the plan of the parent whose birthday comes first in the calendar year (earliest month and day, not earliest birth year) the primary plan for a dependent child. It's a simple tiebreaker, not based on who is older. Hook: the earlier birthday in the year means the primary plan for the kids.

Question 10

When two group plans coordinate benefits on a $1,000 covered expense, what is the maximum the two plans together will pay?

Why

Coordination of benefits caps the combined payment at 100% of the actual covered expense, here $1,000, no matter how generous each plan is on its own. The primary pays first and the secondary covers the remainder up to that ceiling. Hook: two plans still pay only the real cost, never more than 100%.

7 Dental & Vision Insurance

Question 1

A dental HMO (DHMO) generally pays participating dentists how?

Why

Like a medical HMO, a DHMO pays network dentists a capitation fee, a set amount per member assigned to them regardless of services used, and members generally must use network dentists. It emphasizes prepaid, managed dental care. Hook: a DHMO pays dentists per member (capitation), not per procedure.

Question 2

A dental PPO is characterized by what?

Why

A dental PPO contracts with a network of dentists who accept negotiated (discounted) fees, while still letting members see out-of-network dentists at a higher out-of-pocket cost. It mirrors the medical PPO model. Hook: a dental PPO is the discounted-network-with-an-exit-option model.

Question 3

Basic restorative dental services such as fillings and simple extractions are commonly covered at roughly what coinsurance level?

Why

Basic restorative procedures typically sit in the middle tier, often paid at around 80%, with the patient covering the remaining 20% after any deductible. Hook: basic care lands in the middle, often about 80% covered.

Question 4

Which of the following would normally fall under the preventive/diagnostic category of a dental plan?

Why

Preventive and diagnostic care covers the routine maintenance items, cleanings, exams, and x-rays, that keep small problems from becoming big ones. Crowns and bridges are major services, and braces are orthodontia. Hook: cleanings and x-rays are textbook preventive care.

Question 5

The annual maximum benefit in a dental plan refers to what?

Why

The annual (calendar-year) maximum is the ceiling on what the plan pays per covered person each year; once reached, the patient pays the rest until the maximum resets the following year. Dental annual maximums are often modest. Hook: the annual max is the plan's yearly payout ceiling per person.

Question 6

Many dental plans impose a waiting period before covering which services?

Why

Plans often require a waiting period (such as 6 to 12 months) before paying for expensive major services, which discourages someone from enrolling, getting costly work, and then dropping the plan. Preventive care is usually available immediately. Hook: big-ticket dental work often comes with a waiting period; cleanings do not.

Question 7

Predetermination of benefits (pretreatment review) in a dental plan lets the patient and dentist do what before major work begins?

Why

With predetermination, the dentist submits the proposed treatment plan and the insurer estimates what it will cover before the work is done, so there are no payment surprises. It's recommended for expensive procedures. Hook: predetermination is a no-surprises preview of what the plan will pay.

Question 8

Under a least expensive alternative treatment (alternate benefit) provision, how does the plan pay when more than one acceptable treatment exists?

Why

The alternate benefit (LEAT) provision lets the plan calculate its payment based on the cheapest treatment that would adequately do the job. If the patient chooses a pricier option, they pay the difference. Hook: the plan pays for the cheapest adequate fix; upgrades are on the patient.

Question 9

Which of the following is typically excluded from dental coverage?

Why

Dental plans generally exclude purely cosmetic work, like whitening or veneers done solely for appearance, since it isn't medically necessary. Functional and preventive care is what's covered. Hook: cosmetic-only dental work is on you; the plan covers function, not vanity.

Question 10

Vision plan benefits are commonly divided into which two components?

Why

Vision coverage usually separates the exam (the professional service) from the materials (lenses, frames, contacts), each with its own copay, allowance, or frequency rule. Hook: vision splits into the exam and the eyewear materials.

8 Senior & Special Needs Health Insurance

Question 1

Besides reaching age 65, a person may qualify for Medicare in which situation?

Why

People under 65 can get Medicare if they've received Social Security disability benefits for 24 months, and certain conditions (end-stage renal disease, ALS) qualify sooner. Hook: long-term disability, not just age 65, can open the Medicare door.

Question 2

Original Medicare consists of which two parts?

Why

Original Medicare is the combination of Part A (hospital insurance) and Part B (medical insurance). Parts C and D are the private add-on options (Advantage and prescription drugs). Hook: Original Medicare equals A plus B, hospital plus medical.

Question 3

The Initial Enrollment Period for Medicare is generally how long, centered on the person's 65th birthday month?

Why

The Initial Enrollment Period spans 7 months: the 3 months before your 65th-birthday month, that month itself, and the 3 months after. Enrolling on time avoids late penalties. Hook: a 7-month window, three before, the month of, and three after your 65th.

Question 4

For most beneficiaries, Medicare Part A is financed how?

Why

Most people pay no premium for Part A because they (and their employers) already funded it through Medicare payroll taxes while working. Those without enough work credits can buy in by paying a premium. Hook: Part A is usually premium-free, paid for by a lifetime of FICA taxes.

Question 5

Medicare Part B primarily covers which of the following?

Why

Part B is medical insurance: it covers doctor visits, outpatient services, preventive care, lab tests, and durable medical equipment like wheelchairs. Inpatient hospital care is Part A. Hook: Part B is the doctor-and-outpatient side of Medicare.

Question 6

After the annual Part B deductible is met, Medicare Part B generally pays what share of the approved amount for covered services?

Why

Once the yearly Part B deductible is satisfied, Medicare typically pays 80% of the approved amount and the beneficiary pays the remaining 20% coinsurance. That open-ended 20% is a common reason people add a Medicare Supplement. Hook: Part B pays 80, you pay 20, with no built-in cap on your share.

Question 7

Medicare Part C (Medicare Advantage) is best described as what?

Why

Medicare Advantage (Part C) lets beneficiaries get their Medicare benefits through a private plan, often an HMO or PPO, that combines Part A and Part B (and frequently Part D drug coverage and extras) in one package. It's an alternative to Original Medicare, not a supplement to it. Hook: Part C is Medicare delivered through a private all-in-one plan.

Question 8

A Medicare Supplement (Medigap) policy is designed to do what?

Why

Medigap policies, sold by private insurers, pay some or all of the out-of-pocket costs Original Medicare leaves behind, like the Part A deductible and the Part B 20% coinsurance. They work alongside Original Medicare, not in place of it. Hook: Medigap fills the holes Original Medicare leaves.

Question 9

A Medicare Supplement policy generally must include a free look period of how long?

Why

Medigap policies carry a 30-day free look, letting the buyer return the policy for a full refund if they change their mind. It's longer than the typical individual-policy free look. Hook: Medigap gives a generous 30-day free look.

Question 10

Medicaid differs from Medicare primarily in that Medicaid is what?

Why

Medicaid is a joint federal-state program that provides coverage based on financial need, with income and asset limits, rather than on age or work history. Medicare, by contrast, is largely age- or disability-based and federally run. Hook: Medicaid is need-based coverage; Medicare is earned, age-based coverage.

9 Federal Tax Considerations — Health Insurance

Question 1

Which principle best summarizes how disability income benefits are taxed based on who paid the premium and how?

Why

The governing rule is symmetry: tax-free premiums going in lead to taxable benefits coming out, and after-tax premiums going in lead to tax-free benefits coming out. It applies across both individual and group disability coverage. Hook: the tax gets paid somewhere, either on the premium or on the benefit, never both and never neither.

Question 2

Employer-paid group health insurance premiums are generally treated how for the covered employee?

Why

The value of employer-paid group health coverage is excluded from the employee's taxable income, so the employee gets the benefit tax-free. This is one of the most valuable tax breaks in the benefits world. Hook: employer-paid health coverage is tax-free to the employee, not counted as wages.

Question 3

In a group disability plan where the employer pays 60% of the premium and employees pay 40% with after-tax dollars, how are benefits generally taxed?

Why

When premiums are split, the benefits are taxed in proportion: the part attributable to the employer's deducted premium is taxable, and the part attributable to the employees' after-tax contributions is tax-free. Here that's about 60% taxable and 40% tax-free. Hook: split the premium, split the tax, in the same proportions.

Question 4

For a key person disability income policy owned by and payable to the business, how are the premiums and benefits generally treated?

Why

Key person DI premiums are not deductible (the business is also the beneficiary), and the benefits the business receives are income-tax-free, the same nondeductible-in, tax-free-out pattern as key person life insurance. Hook: key person coverage, no deduction in, tax-free out.

Question 5

Premiums for a disability buy-sell policy are generally treated how?

Why

Disability buy-sell premiums are not deductible, much like a life insurance buy-sell, and the benefits used to fund the buyout are received income-tax-free. Hook: buy-sell premiums aren't deductible, but the buyout funds come tax-free.

Question 6

A health savings account (HSA) is sometimes called triple tax-advantaged because of which combination?

Why

The HSA's triple advantage is contributions that are deductible or pre-tax, earnings that grow tax-free, and withdrawals that are tax-free when used for qualified medical expenses. Few accounts offer all three. Hook: HSA equals a tax break going in, growing, and coming out, all three.

Question 7

Contributions to a health flexible spending account (FSA) through salary reduction are generally treated how?

Why

FSA contributions come out of salary on a pre-tax basis, lowering the employee's taxable income, in exchange for the use-it-or-lose-it restriction on unused funds. Hook: FSA money goes in pre-tax, shrinking your taxable pay.

Question 8

Reimbursements an employee receives from an employer-funded health reimbursement arrangement (HRA) for qualified medical expenses are generally treated how?

Why

HRA reimbursements for qualified medical expenses are tax-free to the employee, and the employer funds and deducts the arrangement, another tax-favored health benefit. Hook: employer-funded HRA reimbursements reach the employee tax-free.

Question 9

Premiums for a tax-qualified long-term care policy may be treated how for an individual who itemizes?

Why

Premiums for a tax-qualified LTC policy count as deductible medical expenses, but only up to age-based dollar limits and only to the extent total medical costs exceed the AGI floor. Hook: qualified LTC premiums can be deducted, within age caps and the usual medical-expense floor.

Question 10

Benefits received from a tax-qualified long-term care policy are generally treated how?

Why

Benefits from a tax-qualified LTC policy are generally received income-tax-free, up to a stated per diem limit set by law. Amounts above that limit may be taxable unless they reflect actual incurred expenses. Hook: qualified LTC benefits come tax-free, within a daily cap.

The rest of the Alaska Health system

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