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Free Colorado Accident & Health Practice Questions

Real questions in the style of the Colorado Accident & Health licensing exam, pulled straight from the TESTivity course, each with a plain-English explanation. Start with the Colorado-specific rules below, then work the rest, and unlock the full simulator when you're ready to drill.

Questions on exam80
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Test providerPearson VUE
Time limitNot published
Pass rate68%

That's right — 32% of test-takers do not pass the Colorado Accident & Health exam on their first attempt. Make sure you're part of the 68% who do.

First-time pass rate: 68% · Source: NAIC, 2024 (most recent available statistics)

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1 Insurance Basics & Foundational Concepts

Question 1

Which type of risk is the only kind that insurance is designed to cover?

Why

Insurance only deals with pure risk: situations where there's a chance of loss or no loss, but no chance of gain (like your house burning down). Speculative risk involves a chance of loss, no loss, OR gain. That's gambling and investing, and insurers won't touch it. If there's an upside, it's not insurable.

Question 2

In insurance terms, a 'peril' refers to:

Why

Keep these three straight and you'll bank easy points all day: a peril is the cause of loss (fire, wind, theft), a hazard is something that increases the chance or severity of that loss, and risk is the uncertainty of loss itself. The peril is the thing that actually does the damage.

Question 3

A hazard is best defined as:

Why

A hazard doesn't cause the loss itself; it just makes a loss more likely or more severe. Icy steps, frayed wiring, a careless attitude: none of those start the fire or the fall, but they tip the odds. Causes of loss are perils; hazards just stack the deck.

Question 4

An insured who becomes careless about safety simply because they know they have insurance is displaying a:

Why

Morale hazard is the 'eh, I'm covered' attitude: indifference or carelessness that creeps in because insurance exists. It's not dishonesty (that's moral hazard) and it's not a physical condition (physical hazard). Trick to remember: moralE hazard is about a person's lazy attitudE.

Question 5

Cans of gasoline stored in a residential garage are an example of a:

Why

A physical hazard is a tangible condition that increases the likelihood or severity of a loss: gasoline in the garage, a slippery floor, frayed wiring. You can see or touch it. If it's an attitude problem it's morale; if it's dishonesty it's moral; if it's a physical thing sitting there raising the odds, it's physical.

Question 6

Policyholder dividends paid by a mutual insurer are:

Why

A mutual insurer is owned by its policyholders, so a 'dividend' is really a return of overpaid premium, which is why it's generally not taxable. And it's never guaranteed; it depends on the company's results. Stock dividends, by contrast, go to stockholders and are taxable.

Question 7

An agent who represents only one insurance company and does not own the policy expirations is typically called a:

Why

A captive (or exclusive) agent represents a single insurer, and that insurer owns the book of business. An independent agent represents multiple companies and owns their own expirations (the renewal rights). The ownership-of-expirations detail is the classic distinguisher.

Question 8

Under the law of agency, an insurance agent generally represents the:

Why

An agent represents the insurer (the principal); that's the cornerstone of agency law. A broker, by contrast, represents the insured. So when an agent acts within their authority, the insurer is on the hook for what they do. Agent equals the insurer's rep.

Question 9

An insurance broker legally represents the:

Why

A broker works for the insured, shopping the market on the client's behalf, while an agent works for the insurer. Same exam, different masters: keep them straight. Broker equals the buyer's side; agent equals the company's side.

Question 10

A statement made by an applicant on an insurance application that is believed to be true to the best of their knowledge is a:

Why

Representations are statements the applicant believes are true, and they only need to be true to the best of the applicant's knowledge. A warranty is a stronger animal: it's guaranteed to be absolutely true. Concealment is hiding a material fact. For most applications, you're dealing with representations.

2 Accident & Health Insurance Basics

Question 1

Disability income insurance is designed primarily to do what?

Why

Disability income coverage doesn't pay medical bills; it replaces a paycheck. When illness or injury keeps you from working, it provides periodic income (usually a percentage of your earnings) so the bills at home still get paid. Hook: disability income protects the paycheck, not the medical bill.

Question 2

Modern accident policies generally define a covered accident using which standard?

Why

Older policies used the stricter accidental means test (the cause had to be unexpected), but the modern trend is the accidental results, or accidental bodily injury, standard, which only requires that the injury be unintended. It's a more generous, claimant-friendly definition. Hook: results, not means; the newer standard looks at the unexpected injury, not the cause.

Question 3

In group health insurance, the master contract is issued to whom?

Why

In group coverage the insurer issues one master contract to the group sponsor (typically the employer), and each covered member receives a certificate of coverage rather than an individual policy. Hook: the employer holds the master contract; employees hold certificates.

Question 4

Which type of coverage insures a group of people who are not individually named, such as passengers on an airline or students on a field trip?

Why

Blanket coverage protects a constantly changing group whose members aren't named individually, like airline passengers, campers, or a sports team. You're covered simply because you belong to the defined group during the covered activity. Hook: a blanket covers whoever happens to be under it, no individual names required.

Question 5

Compared with individual health insurance, group health coverage generally does what regarding underwriting?

Why

Group coverage is underwritten on the group as a whole, its size, industry, and demographics, rather than screening each person's health. That's why an employee can usually enroll without a medical exam during the eligibility window. Hook: group underwriting looks at the group, not each individual's medical history.

Question 6

What is the key difference between a noncancelable policy and a guaranteed renewable policy?

Why

Both require the insurer to keep renewing to a stated age, so neither can drop the insured for health reasons. The difference is price: noncancelable freezes the premium too, while guaranteed renewable lets the insurer raise rates for an entire class. Hook: both guarantee the coverage; only noncancelable also guarantees the premium.

Question 7

Under an optionally renewable policy, the insurer may do what at each renewal date?

Why

Optionally renewable hands the insurer discretion: at each anniversary or renewal date it can decide whether to renew at all and can raise the premium. It's much weaker protection for the insured than guaranteed renewable. Hook: the insurer holds the option, so renewal is its choice at each renewal date.

Question 8

Coinsurance in a health policy refers to what?

Why

Coinsurance is the sharing percentage that applies once the deductible is met; an 80/20 plan means the insurer pays 80% and the insured pays 20% of covered charges. It keeps the insured with some skin in the game. Hook: coinsurance is the percentage you and the insurer split after the deductible.

Question 9

A covered medical bill is $5,000. The policy has a $500 deductible and 80/20 coinsurance, and the out-of-pocket maximum has not yet been reached. How much does the insured pay?

Why

First the insured pays the $500 deductible. That leaves $4,500, which the 80/20 coinsurance splits, so the insured pays 20% of $4,500, or $900. Add the deductible and the coinsurance share: $500 + $900 = $1,400, while the insurer pays the remaining $3,600. Hook: deductible first, then your coinsurance percentage of what's left, so $500 plus $900 equals $1,400.

Question 10

When an insurer needs detailed medical history about a specific condition disclosed on an application, it typically requests what?

Why

An attending physician's statement (APS) is a report the insurer obtains, with the applicant's authorization, from the doctor who treated a disclosed condition. It fills in clinical details the application alone can't provide. Hook: when underwriters need the medical specifics, they go to the treating doctor for an APS.

3 Individual A&H Policy Provisions

Question 1

Under the entire contract provision of an individual health policy, the contract consists of what?

Why

The entire contract is just the policy plus the application attached to it. Nothing outside those documents, not the agent's promises and not the company's internal rules, can be made part of the agreement. Hook: if it isn't in the policy or the attached application, it isn't in the contract.

Question 2

Under the model uniform provisions, the grace period for a health policy with monthly premiums is generally how long?

Why

The grace period varies with how often premiums are paid: 7 days for weekly premiums, 10 days for monthly premiums, and 31 days for any other mode. The less often you pay, the longer the grace period. Hook: weekly 7, monthly 10, everything else 31, so the rarer the payment, the longer the grace.

Question 3

When a lapsed health policy is reinstated, how are accident and sickness losses typically covered?

Why

On reinstatement, accidental injury losses are covered immediately, but sickness is covered only if it begins more than 10 days after the reinstatement date. The 10-day gap on sickness exists to discourage someone from reinstating only because they've just become ill. Hook: accidents covered at once, sickness has to wait 10 days after reinstatement.

Question 4

Under the optional unpaid premium provision, what may an insurer do when a claim is payable and a premium is overdue?

Why

The unpaid premium provision lets the insurer simply subtract any premium then due and unpaid from the benefits it pays out, rather than denying the claim. Hook: the insurer just nets the overdue premium out of the claim check.

Question 5

Under the notice of claim provision, the insured must generally give written notice of a claim within how many days of a loss?

Why

Written notice of claim must be given within 20 days after a covered loss, or as soon as reasonably possible. It simply alerts the insurer that a claim is coming. Hook: 20 days to put the insurer on notice that a loss occurred.

Question 6

If the insurer fails to furnish claim forms within the required time, what may the claimant do?

Why

If the insurer doesn't deliver claim forms on time, the claimant is allowed to submit proof of loss in their own words; any written statement of the nature and extent of the loss will satisfy the requirement. Hook: no forms from the insurer means you can describe the loss in any written form.

Question 7

The purpose of the proof of loss provision is to do what?

Why

Proof of loss is the supporting documentation, bills, statements, and records, that lets the insurer verify a claim and determine what it owes. Without it, the insurer can't properly evaluate the claim. Hook: proof of loss is the evidence file that backs up the claim.

Question 8

Under the legal actions provision, how soon after submitting proof of loss may the insured bring a lawsuit against the insurer?

Why

The insured must wait at least 60 days after giving proof of loss before suing, which gives the insurer time to review and pay the claim. Hook: 60 days is the cooling-off floor before any lawsuit can start.

Question 9

Under the change of beneficiary provision, the policyowner may change the beneficiary at any time unless what is true?

Why

The owner keeps the right to change the beneficiary unless they've named an irrevocable beneficiary, in which case the beneficiary's written consent is required. Hook: revocable means change freely, irrevocable means you need the beneficiary's okay.

Question 10

A probationary (waiting) period in a health policy is best described as what?

Why

A probationary period is an initial stretch, often the first 15 to 30 days after the policy starts, during which sickness-related losses aren't yet covered; it keeps someone from buying a policy after symptoms appear. Accident coverage usually begins right away. Hook: a short waiting period at the start before sickness benefits kick in.

4 Disability Income & Related Insurance

Question 1

Under an "own occupation" (own occ) definition of total disability, the insured is considered totally disabled when they cannot do what?

Why

The own-occupation definition pays benefits when the insured can't perform the main duties of their specific occupation, even if they could work in some other field. It's the more generous definition because it judges disability against your actual career. Hook: own occ asks only whether you can do your own job.

Question 2

Which definition of total disability is generally more favorable to the insured?

Why

Own occupation is the more favorable, and more expensive, definition, because it pays when you can't do your specific job regardless of whether you could earn a living elsewhere. Any occ, by contrast, sets a much higher bar to collect. Hook: own occ favors the insured, any occ favors the insurer.

Question 3

Under a presumptive disability provision, an insured is automatically considered totally disabled upon which of the following?

Why

Presumptive disability treats certain severe losses, such as total loss of sight, hearing, speech, or any two limbs, as automatically and totally disabling, so full benefits are paid even if the insured could technically still work. Often no elimination period applies. Hook: lose sight, hearing, speech, or two limbs and you're presumed totally disabled, no questions asked.

Question 4

The elimination period in a disability income policy is best described as what?

Why

The elimination (or waiting) period is the time after a disability begins before benefits start to accrue, functioning like a time deductible. A 90-day elimination period means no benefits for the first 90 days. Hook: the elimination period is the unpaid waiting stretch before benefits begin.

Question 5

A probationary period in a disability income policy most commonly applies to which type of loss?

Why

The probationary period is a short stretch at the start of the policy during which sickness-related disabilities aren't covered, which discourages someone from buying coverage once symptoms appear. Disabilities from accidents are usually covered from day one. Hook: a probationary period delays sickness coverage at the very start, while accidents are covered right away.

Question 6

Why do disability income policies generally limit benefits to a percentage of the insured's income rather than 100%?

Why

Insurers cap benefits below full income (and below what you'd net after taxes, since the benefits are often tax-free) so the insured always has a financial reason to recover and return to work. Paying 100% could encourage staying disabled, known as malingering. Hook: benefits stop short of full pay so working still beats collecting.

Question 7

A disability income policy with a Social Security offset (integration) provision does what?

Why

An integrated, or offset, plan coordinates with Social Security disability so the combined payment doesn't exceed the target percentage of income; the policy reduces its benefit (dollar-for-dollar or partially) by what Social Security pays. It controls overinsurance and lowers the premium. Hook: the policy's benefit shrinks by whatever Social Security kicks in.

Question 8

A cost of living adjustment (COLA) rider on a disability income policy does what?

Why

The COLA rider raises the monthly benefit periodically while the insured is on a long claim, usually tied to an inflation index, so a multi-year disability benefit doesn't lose purchasing power. Hook: COLA keeps a long-running benefit from being eaten away by inflation.

Question 9

A return of premium rider on a disability income policy provides what?

Why

A return of premium rider refunds part of the premiums paid, less any claims, after a stated number of years, rewarding insureds who stay healthy. It raises the premium in exchange for that potential refund. Hook: stay claim-free and the insurer hands back a chunk of your premiums.

Question 10

Social Security disability benefits generally begin only after a waiting period of how long?

Why

Social Security disability imposes a five-month waiting period, so benefits start in the sixth full month of disability. Combined with the strict definition, it makes private disability income coverage important for bridging that gap. Hook: Social Security disability makes you wait five months before the first payment.

5 Medical Plans

Question 1

Basic hospital expense coverage typically provides benefits for what?

Why

Basic hospital expense pays a daily room-and-board benefit (often up to a stated maximum per day and number of days) plus miscellaneous hospital charges like lab work and medications. It doesn't cover the surgeon, which is surgical expense. Hook: hospital expense pays for the bed and the hospital's charges, not the surgeon.

Question 2

With a few exceptions such as emergencies, an HMO generally covers services only when they are provided by whom?

Why

HMOs require members to use the plan's network of providers (outside of true emergencies), which is how they control cost and coordinate care. Go outside the network and the service generally isn't covered. Hook: HMO equals in-network only, except for emergencies.

Question 3

In a traditional HMO, the primary care physician (PCP) acts as a gatekeeper, meaning the PCP does what?

Why

The gatekeeper PCP manages each member's care and must provide a referral before the member can see a specialist, which keeps utilization, and cost, under control. Hook: in an HMO, you go through the gatekeeper PCP to reach a specialist.

Question 4

A key feature of a preferred provider organization (PPO) is that members may do what?

Why

A PPO offers a network of providers at discounted rates but still lets members go out of network; they just pay more (higher deductible or coinsurance) when they do. That flexibility is the PPO's main selling point over an HMO. Hook: a PPO lets you leave the network, for a price.

Question 5

Compared with a traditional HMO, a PPO generally does what regarding specialist access?

Why

PPOs typically don't use a gatekeeper, so members can go straight to a specialist without first getting a referral from a primary care physician. It's more convenient but usually costs more in premium than an HMO. Hook: no gatekeeper in a PPO, you can self-refer to specialists.

Question 6

Managed care plans such as HMOs and PPOs primarily aim to do what?

Why

The whole point of managed care is to rein in costs and coordinate care, using networks, gatekeepers, and utilization review, while still aiming to maintain quality. It's a deliberate contrast to open-ended fee-for-service. Hook: managed care manages both the dollars and the care.

Question 7

Which of the following is true of a health savings account (HSA)?

Why

An HSA belongs to the individual, so it follows them from job to job, the balance rolls over year to year, and it offers strong tax treatment: deductible (or pre-tax) contributions, tax-free growth, and tax-free withdrawals for qualified medical expenses. Hook: an HSA is yours to keep, rolls over, and is tax-favored coming and going.

Question 8

A traditional flexible spending account (FSA) is generally characterized by what?

Why

An FSA lets an employee set aside pre-tax salary for medical costs, but it traditionally follows a use-it-or-lose-it rule: money not spent by the plan year's end (subject to limited grace or carryover options) is forfeited. Hook: an FSA is pre-tax but use-it-or-lose-it, so don't overfund it.

Question 9

Consumer-directed health plans (such as HDHPs paired with HSAs) are designed mainly to do what?

Why

Consumer-directed plans put more decision-making, and more of the early cost, in the consumer's hands, pairing a high deductible with a tax-favored account so people shop more carefully for care. Hook: consumer-directed means you steer the spending, with skin in the game.

Question 10

Precertification (prior authorization) in a managed care plan requires what?

Why

Precertification is a utilization-management tool: the plan reviews and approves certain planned services or admissions in advance to confirm they're medically necessary before agreeing to pay. Emergencies are generally exempt. Hook: precert means getting the plan's green light before non-emergency care.

6 Group Health Insurance

Question 1

In a group health plan, the individual covered members receive what document evidencing their coverage?

Why

The insurer issues one master contract to the group sponsor, and each covered member gets a certificate of coverage summarizing their benefits and rights. The members don't hold individual policies. Hook: the sponsor gets the master contract, the members get certificates.

Question 2

A group plan in which the employer pays the entire premium is called what?

Why

A noncontributory plan is fully employer-paid; the employee contributes nothing toward the premium. A contributory plan, by contrast, has the employee pay a share. Hook: noncontributory means the employee does not contribute, so the employer foots the whole bill.

Question 3

Federal COBRA continuation rights generally apply to employers with at least how many employees?

Why

COBRA applies to group health plans of employers with 20 or more employees. Smaller employers may be subject to state mini-COBRA laws instead. Hook: 20 employees is the federal COBRA threshold.

Question 4

Under COBRA, an employee who loses group coverage due to termination (other than for gross misconduct) or reduced hours may generally continue coverage for how long?

Why

Termination of employment (except for gross misconduct) or a reduction in hours is an 18-month qualifying event for the employee under COBRA. Hook: lose the job or the hours, get 18 months of COBRA.

Question 5

Under COBRA, who generally pays the premium for the continued coverage?

Why

The person continuing coverage pays the full premium, up to 102% of the group rate, with the extra 2% covering administrative cost. COBRA preserves access to the group plan, but not the employer's subsidy. Hook: you keep the group coverage but pay it all yourself, plus a 2% admin add-on.

Question 6

Under COBRA, which qualifying event generally entitles a spouse or dependent to up to 36 months of continuation?

Why

Events such as divorce or legal separation, the covered employee's death, the employee becoming entitled to Medicare, or a child losing dependent status give the spouse or dependents up to 36 months of COBRA continuation. Hook: family-status events like divorce and death stretch COBRA to 36 months for dependents.

Question 7

Under HIPAA, a group health plan generally may not do what?

Why

HIPAA's nondiscrimination rule prohibits a group plan from denying an eligible individual coverage, or charging them more, because of their health status or medical history. Everyone in the eligible group must be treated alike. Hook: HIPAA says a group plan can't single you out for being sick.

Question 8

Under HIPAA, prior health coverage that can reduce a new plan's pre-existing condition exclusion period is known as what?

Why

Creditable coverage is prior, generally continuous, health coverage that gets credited against any pre-existing condition waiting period a new plan might impose, shortening or eliminating it. Hook: creditable coverage is the prior coverage you get credit for when you switch plans.

Question 9

Under the common birthday rule for coordinating coverage on a dependent child, the primary plan is the one belonging to the parent whose birthday does what?

Why

The birthday rule makes the plan of the parent whose birthday comes first in the calendar year (earliest month and day, not earliest birth year) the primary plan for a dependent child. It's a simple tiebreaker, not based on who is older. Hook: the earlier birthday in the year means the primary plan for the kids.

Question 10

Self-funded employer health plans are primarily governed by which federal law rather than by state insurance regulation?

Why

Self-funded employer plans fall largely under ERISA, a federal law, which is one reason employers choose self-funding: it exempts them from many state insurance mandates. Hook: self-funded plans answer mainly to ERISA at the federal level.

7 Dental & Vision Insurance

Question 1

A scheduled (table of allowances) dental plan pays benefits how?

Why

A scheduled dental plan lists a set dollar benefit for each covered procedure, regardless of what the dentist actually charges. If the bill exceeds the schedule amount, the patient pays the difference. Hook: scheduled dental is a fixed price list, one dollar figure per procedure.

Question 2

A nonscheduled (comprehensive) dental plan typically pays benefits based on what?

Why

A nonscheduled, or comprehensive, dental plan pays a percentage of the UCR charge for each service rather than a fixed dollar amount, so benefits track local prevailing fees. It's the dental version of UCR-based medical coverage. Hook: nonscheduled dental pays a percentage of the going UCR rate, not a fixed table.

Question 3

A combination dental plan does what?

Why

A combination plan blends the two methods, often paying preventive and basic care on a UCR percentage basis while using a fixed schedule for certain services (or vice versa), to balance predictability and flexibility. Hook: a combination plan mixes scheduled and nonscheduled methods in one plan.

Question 4

A dental HMO (DHMO) generally pays participating dentists how?

Why

Like a medical HMO, a DHMO pays network dentists a capitation fee, a set amount per member assigned to them regardless of services used, and members generally must use network dentists. It emphasizes prepaid, managed dental care. Hook: a DHMO pays dentists per member (capitation), not per procedure.

Question 5

Major dental services such as crowns, bridges, and dentures are most commonly covered at approximately what coinsurance level, and why lower than preventive care?

Why

Major services are usually covered at about 50%, the lowest tier, because they are expensive, so the plan shifts more of the cost to the patient through higher coinsurance. The three-tier 100/80/50 pattern is the classic dental structure. Hook: the bigger and pricier the work, the smaller the share the plan pays, with major care around 50%.

Question 6

Predetermination of benefits (pretreatment review) in a dental plan lets the patient and dentist do what before major work begins?

Why

With predetermination, the dentist submits the proposed treatment plan and the insurer estimates what it will cover before the work is done, so there are no payment surprises. It's recommended for expensive procedures. Hook: predetermination is a no-surprises preview of what the plan will pay.

Question 7

Which of the following is typically excluded from dental coverage?

Why

Dental plans generally exclude purely cosmetic work, like whitening or veneers done solely for appearance, since it isn't medically necessary. Functional and preventive care is what's covered. Hook: cosmetic-only dental work is on you; the plan covers function, not vanity.

Question 8

Vision plan benefits are commonly divided into which two components?

Why

Vision coverage usually separates the exam (the professional service) from the materials (lenses, frames, contacts), each with its own copay, allowance, or frequency rule. Hook: vision splits into the exam and the eyewear materials.

Question 9

A patient is treated for glaucoma, an eye disease. Under which coverage is this care most likely paid?

Why

Treatment of eye disease or injury, like glaucoma, cataracts, or an eye infection, is medical care and is covered under the health plan, not the routine vision plan, which handles only exams and eyewear. Hook: disease and injury to the eye go through medical coverage; routine vision handles glasses and checkups.

Question 10

Many vision plans operate through a network of providers, paying higher benefits when the member uses an in-network optometrist or optician. This resembles which model?

Why

Network-based vision plans work much like a PPO: members get the best benefit (often a richer allowance or lower copay) by using in-network providers, with reduced benefits out of network. Hook: vision networks follow the PPO playbook, best deal inside the network.

8 Senior & Special Needs Health Insurance

Question 1

Besides reaching age 65, a person may qualify for Medicare in which situation?

Why

People under 65 can get Medicare if they've received Social Security disability benefits for 24 months, and certain conditions (end-stage renal disease, ALS) qualify sooner. Hook: long-term disability, not just age 65, can open the Medicare door.

Question 2

Original Medicare consists of which two parts?

Why

Original Medicare is the combination of Part A (hospital insurance) and Part B (medical insurance). Parts C and D are the private add-on options (Advantage and prescription drugs). Hook: Original Medicare equals A plus B, hospital plus medical.

Question 3

For most people already receiving Social Security, enrollment in Medicare Part A at age 65 is generally what?

Why

People already drawing Social Security are usually enrolled in Part A automatically at 65, since Part A is premium-free for those with enough work credits. Part B enrollment may require action because it carries a premium. Hook: Part A usually arrives automatically when you're already on Social Security.

Question 4

For most beneficiaries, Medicare Part A is financed how?

Why

Most people pay no premium for Part A because they (and their employers) already funded it through Medicare payroll taxes while working. Those without enough work credits can buy in by paying a premium. Hook: Part A is usually premium-free, paid for by a lifetime of FICA taxes.

Question 5

Medicare Part A coverage of skilled nursing facility care is best described as what?

Why

Part A pays for limited, short-term skilled nursing care after a qualifying hospital stay, with full coverage for an initial period and coinsurance after that, but it does not pay for ongoing custodial (long-term) care. That gap is a key reason people buy LTC insurance. Hook: Part A skilled nursing is short and skilled, not long-term custodial.

Question 6

Hospice care for a terminally ill Medicare beneficiary is covered under which part?

Why

Hospice care for the terminally ill is a Part A benefit, focused on comfort and support rather than cure. Hook: hospice rides under Part A, alongside the other inpatient-type benefits.

Question 7

After the annual Part B deductible is met, Medicare Part B generally pays what share of the approved amount for covered services?

Why

Once the yearly Part B deductible is satisfied, Medicare typically pays 80% of the approved amount and the beneficiary pays the remaining 20% coinsurance. That open-ended 20% is a common reason people add a Medicare Supplement. Hook: Part B pays 80, you pay 20, with no built-in cap on your share.

Question 8

A consumer enrolled in a Medicare Advantage (Part C) plan generally cannot also do what?

Why

Medigap is designed to fill gaps in Original Medicare, so it doesn't work with, and shouldn't be sold to, someone on a Medicare Advantage plan. Selling Medigap to an Advantage enrollee is a prohibited practice. Hook: Medigap and Medicare Advantage don't mix, one supplements Original Medicare, the other replaces it.

Question 9

Medicare Part D provides coverage for what?

Why

Part D is the prescription drug benefit, delivered through private drug plans (either standalone or built into a Medicare Advantage plan). It helps cover the cost of outpatient medications. Hook: Part D is for drugs, the prescription piece of Medicare.

Question 10

A tax-qualified long-term care policy typically begins paying benefits when the insured cannot perform how many activities of daily living (ADLs)?

Why

Tax-qualified LTC policies generally pay when the insured is unable to perform at least two of the six ADLs (bathing, dressing, eating, transferring, toileting, and continence) for an expected period, or has a severe cognitive impairment. Hook: lose two of the six ADLs and tax-qualified LTC benefits kick in.

9 Federal Tax Considerations — Health Insurance

Question 1

Premiums an individual pays for their own personal health insurance are generally treated how for federal income tax?

Why

Personal health insurance premiums generally aren't deductible, though they may count toward the itemized medical expense deduction if total medical costs clear the AGI threshold. Hook: personal health premiums usually get no deduction, paid with after-tax dollars.

Question 2

Unreimbursed medical and dental expenses are deductible as an itemized deduction only to the extent they exceed what?

Why

Itemizers can deduct unreimbursed medical expenses, but only the portion that exceeds a set percentage of AGI (currently 7.5%). Expenses below that floor aren't deductible. Hook: only medical costs above the AGI floor count, and only if you itemize.

Question 3

An insured deducts medical expenses on their tax return and is later reimbursed by their health insurer for those same expenses. What is the general tax result?

Why

You can't get a tax benefit twice for the same dollar. If you deducted a medical expense and the insurer later reimburses it, that reimbursed amount can become taxable to undo the earlier deduction. Hook: no double-dipping, deduct and then get reimbursed, and the reimbursement is pulled back into income.

Question 4

Premiums paid by an individual for a personally owned disability income policy are generally treated how?

Why

Premiums for an individually owned disability income policy are not deductible; they're paid with after-tax dollars. That sets up the favorable treatment of the benefits. Hook: no deduction for personal DI premiums, you pay them after tax.

Question 5

Which principle best summarizes how disability income benefits are taxed based on who paid the premium and how?

Why

The governing rule is symmetry: tax-free premiums going in lead to taxable benefits coming out, and after-tax premiums going in lead to tax-free benefits coming out. It applies across both individual and group disability coverage. Hook: the tax gets paid somewhere, either on the premium or on the benefit, never both and never neither.

Question 6

When an employer pays the premiums for a group disability income plan and deducts them as a business expense, how are the benefits taxed to the employee?

Why

If the employer paid (and deducted) the premiums and the employee was never taxed on them, the disability benefits are taxable to the employee when received; the tax simply shifts to the back end. Hook: employer-paid, employer-deducted DI premiums mean the employee is taxed on the benefits.

Question 7

If employees pay their own group disability income premiums with after-tax dollars, the benefits they later receive are generally what?

Why

When employees fund the premiums themselves with after-tax money, the resulting disability benefits come back tax-free, the same logic as an individually owned policy. Hook: employees paying after-tax premiums collect their DI benefits tax-free.

Question 8

In a group disability plan where the employer pays 60% of the premium and employees pay 40% with after-tax dollars, how are benefits generally taxed?

Why

When premiums are split, the benefits are taxed in proportion: the part attributable to the employer's deducted premium is taxable, and the part attributable to the employees' after-tax contributions is tax-free. Here that's about 60% taxable and 40% tax-free. Hook: split the premium, split the tax, in the same proportions.

Question 9

For a business overhead expense (BOE) disability policy, how are the premiums and benefits generally treated?

Why

BOE premiums are deductible as a business expense, and because the benefits reimburse otherwise-deductible business expenses, the benefits are taxable to the business. It's consistent with the deduct-now, tax-later pattern. Hook: BOE premiums are deductible going in, so the benefits are taxable coming out.

Question 10

A health savings account (HSA) is sometimes called triple tax-advantaged because of which combination?

Why

The HSA's triple advantage is contributions that are deductible or pre-tax, earnings that grow tax-free, and withdrawals that are tax-free when used for qualified medical expenses. Few accounts offer all three. Hook: HSA equals a tax break going in, growing, and coming out, all three.

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