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Free Colorado Life, Accident & Health Practice Questions

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That's right — 30% of test-takers do not pass the Colorado Life, Accident & Health exam on their first attempt. Make sure you're part of the 70% who do.

First-time pass rate: 70% · Source: NAIC, 2024 (most recent available statistics) · Basis: Life + Health exams combined

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1 Insurance Basics & Foundational Concepts

Question 1

Which type of risk is the only kind that insurance is designed to cover?

Why

Insurance only deals with pure risk: situations where there's a chance of loss or no loss, but no chance of gain (like your house burning down). Speculative risk involves a chance of loss, no loss, OR gain. That's gambling and investing, and insurers won't touch it. If there's an upside, it's not insurable.

Question 2

A hazard is best defined as:

Why

A hazard doesn't cause the loss itself; it just makes a loss more likely or more severe. Icy steps, frayed wiring, a careless attitude: none of those start the fire or the fall, but they tip the odds. Causes of loss are perils; hazards just stack the deck.

Question 3

Which of the following is a characteristic of an ideally insurable risk?

Why

Insurers like risks that are accidental (due to chance, not intentional) and definite and measurable (you can pin down when, where, and how much). Add in 'predictable for large groups,' 'not catastrophic to the insurer,' and 'affordable premium,' and you've got the recipe for an insurable risk. A loss someone causes on purpose? Not insurable.

Question 4

The primary purpose of reinsurance is to:

Why

Reinsurance is insurance for insurance companies. The original insurer (the ceding company) hands off part of its risk to a reinsurer so one giant loss doesn't sink it. Individuals never deal with reinsurers directly; it all happens behind the scenes between carriers.

Question 5

A stock insurance company is owned by its:

Why

A stock insurer is owned by its stockholders (shareholders), who receive taxable dividends when the company profits. Policyholders are just customers. Contrast that with a mutual insurer, which is owned by its policyholders. Stock equals stockholders; mutual equals members/policyholders.

Question 6

A reciprocal insurance company is managed by a(n):

Why

A reciprocal (an unincorporated group of members who insure each other) is run by an attorney-in-fact. The members are both insureds and insurers to one another. Niche, but the exam likes the 'attorney-in-fact' detail, so tuck it away.

Question 7

Under the law of agency, an insurance agent generally represents the:

Why

An agent represents the insurer (the principal); that's the cornerstone of agency law. A broker, by contrast, represents the insured. So when an agent acts within their authority, the insurer is on the hook for what they do. Agent equals the insurer's rep.

Question 8

An insurance broker legally represents the:

Why

A broker works for the insured, shopping the market on the client's behalf, while an agent works for the insurer. Same exam, different masters: keep them straight. Broker equals the buyer's side; agent equals the company's side.

Question 9

A statement made by an applicant on an insurance application that is believed to be true to the best of their knowledge is a:

Why

Representations are statements the applicant believes are true, and they only need to be true to the best of the applicant's knowledge. A warranty is a stronger animal: it's guaranteed to be absolutely true. Concealment is hiding a material fact. For most applications, you're dealing with representations.

Question 10

Which of the following is NOT one of the four essential elements of a valid contract?

Why

The four elements are agreement (offer and acceptance), consideration, competent parties, and legal purpose. A notarized signature isn't on the list, so it's the odd one out. Consideration, by the way, is what each side brings to the table: the insured's premium and the insurer's promise to pay.

2 Life Insurance Basics

Question 1

A business purchases life insurance on its most valuable employee to protect against the financial loss of that person's death. This is known as:

Why

Key person (or key employee) insurance protects the business itself against losing someone whose death would really hurt the bottom line. The business owns the policy, pays the premiums, and is the beneficiary. If the key person dies, the company gets funds to cover the disruption and find a replacement.

Question 2

Under an executive bonus (Section 162) plan, the life insurance policy is owned by:

Why

In a Section 162 executive bonus plan, the employer pays the premium as a bonus, but the executive owns the policy and names the beneficiary. The bonus is tax-deductible to the employer and taxable income to the executive. The big perk: the employee keeps the policy even if they leave.

Question 3

When calculating life insurance needs, an agent should subtract which of the following from the total need?

Why

You don't insure what's already covered. After totaling the family's needs, subtract the resources they already have: savings, investments, existing life insurance, Social Security survivor benefits. What's left is the true coverage gap the new policy should fill.

Question 4

The 'loading' added to a net premium to arrive at the gross premium covers the insurer's:

Why

Net premium covers mortality and interest. Loading is the extra piled on top for the insurer's expenses, commissions, overhead, and margin, so net premium plus loading equals the gross premium you actually pay. Loading equals the cost of doing business.

Question 5

An agent completing a life insurance application should:

Why

The application is the foundation of the contract, so the agent records what the applicant actually says, accurately and completely, then has the applicant review and sign it. Guessing at answers, signing for someone, or hiding bad health facts isn't just sloppy, it's misrepresentation, and it can void the policy or cost the agent their license.

Question 6

When a new life insurance policy will replace an existing one, the producer is generally required to:

Why

Replacement is heavily regulated because it can hurt the consumer (a new contestable period, new surrender charges, lost benefits). Producers must follow replacement rules: notify the existing insurer, give the client required disclosure notices, and make sure the swap is actually in the client's interest, not just the agent's.

Question 7

A 'preferred' risk classification is given to applicants who:

Why

Preferred risks are the gold-star applicants: nonsmokers, healthy weight, clean history, lower-than-average mortality. Because they're cheaper to insure, they earn the lowest premiums. Standard is average, substandard pays more, and declined can't get coverage at all.

Question 8

The Medical Information Bureau (MIB) assists insurers primarily by:

Why

The MIB is a shared database where member insurers post coded information about applicants' health-related findings. If someone fails to disclose a condition on a new application, the MIB can flag the discrepancy. It's a fraud-and-omission check, not a claims payer or rate setter.

Question 9

An inspection report ordered during underwriting typically provides information about the applicant's:

Why

An inspection report (often from a consumer reporting agency) paints a general picture: lifestyle, finances, habits, reputation, usually for larger policies. It's not a medical record (that's the APS or exam) and not a driving record (that's the MVR). Think background sketch, not diagnosis.

Question 10

The primary role of an underwriter is to:

Why

The underwriter is the gatekeeper of risk: reviewing the application and supporting info, deciding whether to accept the applicant, and assigning the right risk class and premium. Agents sell, claims examiners pay claims, but the underwriter decides who gets in the door and on what terms.

3 Life Insurance Policies

Question 1

A key characteristic of term life insurance is that it:

Why

Term is pure, no-frills protection: it covers you for a set period (10, 20, 30 years, or to a certain age) and pays only if you die during that window. No cash value, no investment piece, just the death benefit, which is why it's the cheapest way to buy a big chunk of coverage.

Question 2

Decreasing term insurance is most commonly used to:

Why

With decreasing term, the death benefit shrinks over the term while the premium stays level, which makes it a natural fit for a mortgage: as you pay the loan down, you need less coverage to pay it off. It's cheaper than level term because the insurer's risk drops each year.

Question 3

Which of the following is a feature of whole life insurance?

Why

Whole life is the workhorse of permanent insurance: lifelong coverage, level premiums that never change, a guaranteed death benefit, and guaranteed cash value that builds over time. You pay more than term, but you get permanence plus a savings element with guarantees attached.

Question 4

A '20-pay' whole life policy is one in which the policyowner:

Why

Limited-pay whole life compresses the premium payments into a set number of years (20-pay, 30-pay, paid-up-at-65). You pay higher premiums but finish paying sooner, and the policy stays in force for life. Coverage is still permanent; you just stop writing checks early.

Question 5

Ordinary (straight) whole life insurance requires premium payments:

Why

Ordinary, straight, or continuous-premium whole life spreads premiums across the insured's entire life, you pay until death or maturity. It has the lowest premium of the whole life family because payments are stretched out the longest. Limited-pay and single-premium just compress that schedule.

Question 6

The cash value of a traditional universal life policy earns interest based on:

Why

A standard (fixed) UL credits the cash value at the insurer's current declared interest rate, which floats with conditions, but it can't drop below a guaranteed minimum floor stated in the policy. So you get upside when rates are good and a safety net when they're not.

Question 7

In a variable life insurance policy, the investment risk is borne by:

Why

Variable life puts the cash value into separate-account subaccounts (mutual-fund-like options) that the policyowner chooses, so the policyowner carries the investment risk and reward. Strong markets grow the cash value and death benefit; poor markets shrink them. That's the opposite of whole life's guarantees.

Question 8

To sell variable life insurance, a producer must hold:

Why

Because variable products are regulated as securities, selling them takes a dual qualification: a state life insurance license plus a FINRA securities registration. A plain life license alone isn't enough. The investment component is what triggers the securities rules.

Question 9

In group life insurance, the contract is issued to the:

Why

Group life works off a single master contract issued to the employer or sponsoring organization. Individual members don't get their own policy, they get a certificate of coverage showing they're insured under the group plan. One contract, many certificate holders.

Question 10

Under federal tax rules, employer-paid group term life insurance premiums are generally tax-free to the employee on the first:

Why

Section 79 lets employees receive up to $50,000 of employer-paid group term life with no taxable income. Coverage above $50,000 creates 'imputed income', a small taxable amount based on an IRS table. So the first $50k is a clean tax-free perk; beyond that, the IRS wants its cut.

4 Life Insurance Provisions, Options & Riders

Question 1

A policyowner receives a new life insurance policy and decides within the free look period that it isn't right for them. What are they entitled to do?

Why

The free look (sometimes called the right-to-examine period) lets the owner return the policy within a set number of days, usually 10, for a full refund of every dollar paid. Think of it like a receipt-in-hand store return: you get cash back, not a store credit. It exists because a life policy is a big commitment people often buy on an agent's recommendation, so the law builds in a cooling-off window.

Question 2

An insured dies during the policy's grace period without having paid the overdue premium. What does the insurer do?

Why

The grace period (commonly about a month, often 30 or 31 days) keeps the policy in force even after a premium is missed, so coverage doesn't lapse the moment a payment is late. If the insured dies during that window the company still pays; it just subtracts the premium that was owed. The grace period protects against accidental lapse, and the only catch at death is the company collecting what it was already due.

Question 3

An owner wants to change the beneficiary, but the current designation is irrevocable. What must the owner do?

Why

A revocable beneficiary can be changed anytime at the owner's discretion. An irrevocable beneficiary, by contrast, has a vested right: the owner can't change the beneficiary, or take a loan, surrender, or assign the policy, without that person's written consent. Just read it literally, irrevocable means you can't revoke it without permission, which is a much stronger position for the beneficiary.

Question 4

A policy names three children equally, per stirpes. One child predeceases the insured, leaving two children of their own. At the insured's death, how are proceeds distributed?

Why

Per stirpes means by branch: if a named beneficiary dies first, their share flows down to their own descendants rather than being reabsorbed by the surviving beneficiaries. So the late child's one-third doesn't vanish or get split among the siblings; it goes to that child's kids. Contrast per capita (by head), where only surviving named beneficiaries share. Hook: stirpes sounds like stem or branch, and the share follows the family branch down.

Question 5

An owner uses the policy's cash value as a single premium to buy a smaller whole life policy with no further premiums due. Which nonforfeiture option is this?

Why

With reduced paid-up insurance, the cash value is applied as one lump-sum premium to purchase a fully paid-up policy of the same type, meaning permanent coverage that lasts for life, just at a lower face amount. You keep lifelong protection and never pay another premium. Read the name as a checklist: reduced (smaller face) plus paid-up (no more premiums), and it stays permanent.

Question 6

Policy dividends from a participating (par) whole life policy are best described as what?

Why

A participating policy can pay dividends, but they're not investment earnings, they're treated as a return of premium the company overcharged, which is exactly why they're generally not taxable. And because they depend on the insurer's actual experience (mortality, expenses, investment results), they're never guaranteed. A dividend is your own money coming back, not a profit the company promises.

Question 7

Under the interest-only settlement option, what does the beneficiary receive?

Why

With the interest-only option, the insurer keeps the death benefit (the principal) and pays the beneficiary just the interest it earns, leaving the full amount intact for later. It's useful when a beneficiary wants some income now but isn't ready to touch the lump sum. The principal stays parked; only the interest gets paid out.

Question 8

A beneficiary selects the straight life (life-only) income option and dies after receiving just three payments. What happens to the remaining proceeds?

Why

Straight life income pays the largest monthly check because it's a pure bet on longevity: payments continue for the recipient's lifetime and stop the instant they die, with nothing left for heirs. Die early and the insurer keeps the balance; live a long time and you can collect well beyond the original proceeds. Life only means exactly that, the biggest payment but zero guarantee to anyone else.

Question 9

Which life income option guarantees payments will continue to a named payee for a minimum number of years even if the beneficiary dies early?

Why

Life income with period certain pays for the recipient's whole life but adds a guaranteed floor, say 10 or 20 years. If the recipient dies inside that window, payments continue to a named payee for the rest of the certain period. You trade a slightly smaller payment for the peace of mind that the money won't simply evaporate if you die early. Period certain equals a guaranteed minimum stretch of payments, no matter what.

Question 10

The guaranteed insurability rider gives the insured what right?

Why

The guaranteed insurability rider (GIR) lets the insured purchase extra coverage at specified ages or life events, like marriage or the birth of a child, with no new medical exam or evidence of insurability. It's pure gold for someone whose health later declines, because the price stays tied to the original good-health rating. It guarantees you remain insurable later, no matter how your health turns out.

5 Annuities

Question 1

An annuity is often described as the mirror image of life insurance because it protects against the risk of what?

Why

Life insurance hedges the risk of dying too soon and leaving dependents short. An annuity hedges the opposite risk: living too long and running out of money. That's why an annuity is essentially a vehicle for the systematic liquidation of an estate, turning a sum of money into income you can't outlive. Easy hook: life insurance is for dying too soon, an annuity is for living too long.

Question 2

Annuitization refers to what?

Why

Annuitization is the switch from saving to spending: the owner converts the accumulated value into a guaranteed income stream and chooses a payout option that sets how long, and to whom, payments run. Once you annuitize, you've generally traded the lump sum for the income. Hook: annuitize means turn the pile of money into a paycheck.

Question 3

A deferred annuity is one that does what?

Why

A deferred annuity postpones the income phase, sometimes by decades, while the money grows tax-deferred in the meantime. It's the accumulation-focused cousin of the immediate annuity. Hook: deferred means the payout is deferred to later, so it's built for growing money before you need the income.

Question 4

In a variable annuity, who bears the investment risk?

Why

Because the value rides on the subaccounts' performance, the owner, not the insurer, bears the investment risk in a variable annuity. Strong markets can grow the value, weak ones can shrink it, with no fixed guarantee on the gain. Hook: variable risk sits with the owner, fixed risk sits with the insurer; they're mirror images.

Question 5

To sell variable annuities, a producer must generally hold what?

Why

Because a variable annuity is both an insurance product and a security, selling it requires dual qualification: a life insurance license from the state plus a securities registration through FINRA, and the prospect must receive a prospectus. Hook: it's part insurance, part investment, so you need both sets of credentials.

Question 6

Which annuity payout option provides the largest periodic payment but stops entirely at the annuitant's death, leaving nothing to heirs?

Why

Life only (pure or straight life) pays the biggest check because the insurer's obligation ends the moment the annuitant dies, with no guarantees to anyone else. Live a long time and you come out ahead; die early and the balance stays with the insurer. Hook: fewest guarantees means the largest payment, and every guarantee you add shrinks the check.

Question 7

A life income with period certain option guarantees what?

Why

Life with period certain pays for the annuitant's whole life and adds a guaranteed minimum stretch, say 10 or 20 years. Die inside that window and a beneficiary collects the remaining guaranteed payments; live past it and payments simply continue for life. Hook: lifetime income plus a guaranteed floor of years, so an early death isn't a total loss.

Question 8

A life annuity with a refund feature (cash or installment refund) guarantees what at a minimum?

Why

A refund annuity promises that if the annuitant dies before collecting at least what they paid in, the difference goes to a beneficiary, either as a lump sum (cash refund) or as continued payments (installment refund). It guarantees the premium isn't lost to an early death, in exchange for a somewhat smaller payment than life only. Hook: refund means you or your beneficiary are guaranteed to get back at least what you put in.

Question 9

Earnings inside a nonqualified annuity during the accumulation phase are treated how for tax purposes?

Why

One of the annuity's main draws is tax deferral: interest and gains compound untaxed during accumulation, and you owe tax only when money comes out. Deferring the tax lets more dollars stay invested and compound. Hook: nothing is taxed until you take it out, which is the whole appeal of the accumulation phase.

Question 10

The exclusion ratio is used to determine what?

Why

Once an annuity is paying out, each payment is part return of your own after-tax contributions (the cost basis) and part earnings. The exclusion ratio is the fraction of each payment that is the tax-free return of basis; the rest is taxable. Hook: the exclusion ratio is what you get to exclude from tax, because you already paid tax on that money going in.

6 Federal Tax Considerations — Life, Annuities & Qualified Plans

Question 1

A beneficiary leaves the death benefit with the insurer under an interest-bearing settlement option. What is the tax treatment of the payments?

Why

The death benefit itself stays income-tax-free even when paid out over time, but any interest the insurer credits while holding the money is taxable income to the beneficiary. Hook: the original benefit is tax-free; the earnings on top of it are not, just like interest in any account.

Question 2

How is the growth of cash value inside a permanent life insurance policy generally treated while the policy stays in force?

Why

The cash value in a permanent policy grows tax-deferred, meaning there's no annual tax on the inside buildup as long as the policy stays in force. This is one of the quiet advantages of permanent insurance over a fully taxable account. Hook: nothing is taxed on the growth while the policy is alive and intact.

Question 3

An owner takes a loan against the cash value of a life insurance policy that remains in force. How is the loan treated for income tax?

Why

A policy loan from a life policy that stays in force is generally not a taxable event, because it's a loan rather than income; you're borrowing against your own cash value. The catch: if the policy later lapses or is surrendered with a loan outstanding and a gain, the previously untaxed gain can become taxable. (And these rules tighten if the policy is a MEC.) Hook: a loan isn't income, so it isn't taxed, as long as the policy stays in force.

Question 4

How are policy dividends and the interest they earn under the accumulation option treated for tax?

Why

Because a dividend is treated as a return of overpaid premium, it isn't taxable when paid. But if you leave it to accumulate at interest, that interest is taxable, the same logic found everywhere in tax: your own money back is free, earnings on it are taxed. Hook: dividend equals return of premium (free), interest on it equals earnings (taxed).

Question 5

Under Section 79, how much employer-provided group term life insurance can an employee receive before the cost of the coverage becomes taxable income?

Why

An employee can receive up to $50,000 of employer-paid group term life with no income tax on the cost of that coverage. Above $50,000, the IRS imputes income based on a standard cost table. Hook: $50,000 is the magic line for tax-free group term life, and the cost of anything above it becomes taxable to the employee.

Question 6

When a nonqualified annuity is annuitized, the exclusion ratio determines what?

Why

With a nonqualified annuity, you've already paid tax on the money you put in (your basis), so the exclusion ratio splits each income payment into a tax-free return of that basis and a taxable earnings portion. Hook: the exclusion ratio is the slice of each payment you exclude from tax because it's your own money coming back.

Question 7

Compared with a nonqualified plan, a qualified retirement plan must do what?

Why

A qualified plan must satisfy IRS and ERISA standards, including nondiscrimination rules that prevent it from favoring owners and highly paid employees, in exchange for its tax breaks. A nonqualified plan skips those rules but also skips the upfront tax advantages and can favor select employees. Hook: qualified plans earn tax breaks by following the rules; nonqualified plans trade the breaks for flexibility.

Question 8

A qualified distribution from a Roth IRA is treated how for federal income tax?

Why

A Roth IRA flips the deal: you contribute after-tax dollars (no deduction), but a qualified distribution, generally after age 59 1/2 and a five-year holding period, comes out completely tax-free, earnings included. Hook: Roth means no deduction now but tax-free qualified withdrawals later, the mirror image of a traditional IRA.

Question 9

Which of the following is true of a Roth IRA during the original owner's lifetime?

Why

Unlike a traditional IRA, a Roth IRA has no required minimum distributions during the original owner's lifetime, so the money can keep growing tax-free for as long as the owner likes. Hook: no RMDs for the Roth owner; the money can sit and grow untouched.

Question 10

A 403(b) plan (tax-sheltered annuity) is generally available to employees of what kind of organization?

Why

A 403(b), or tax-sheltered annuity, is the qualified plan built for public school employees and certain 501(c)(3) nonprofits, working much like a 401(k) but for that sector. Hook: 403(b) is the schools-and-nonprofits version of a 401(k).

7 Accident & Health Insurance Basics

Question 1

Modern accident policies generally define a covered accident using which standard?

Why

Older policies used the stricter accidental means test (the cause had to be unexpected), but the modern trend is the accidental results, or accidental bodily injury, standard, which only requires that the injury be unintended. It's a more generous, claimant-friendly definition. Hook: results, not means; the newer standard looks at the unexpected injury, not the cause.

Question 2

Medical expense insurance is designed to do what?

Why

Medical expense insurance pays for the care itself, hospital stays, surgery, doctor visits, and related services, rather than replacing income. It's the bucket most people picture when they hear health insurance. Hook: medical expense pays the providers; disability income pays you.

Question 3

How are disability income benefits typically paid?

Why

Disability income is paid as a stream of periodic payments (usually monthly) for as long as the qualifying disability lasts, up to the policy's benefit period. It functions like a substitute paycheck rather than a one-time payout. Hook: think of it as a replacement salary that keeps coming while you can't work.

Question 4

In group health insurance, the master contract is issued to whom?

Why

In group coverage the insurer issues one master contract to the group sponsor (typically the employer), and each covered member receives a certificate of coverage rather than an individual policy. Hook: the employer holds the master contract; employees hold certificates.

Question 5

Under a noncancelable health policy, the insurer generally may do which of the following until the stated age?

Why

Noncancelable is the strongest renewal guarantee for the insured: the insurer can't cancel, can't refuse renewal, and can't raise the premium beyond what the policy already states, all the way to the stated age. Hook: noncancelable locks everything, coverage and premium alike, in the insured's favor.

Question 6

A conditionally renewable health policy permits the insurer to decline renewal for which reason?

Why

Conditionally renewable sits in the middle: the insurer may refuse renewal, but only for specific non-health conditions spelled out in the contract, like an age limit or ending employment. It can't decline simply because the insured got sick. Hook: renewal depends on stated conditions, none of which is the insured's health.

Question 7

A deductible in a health insurance policy is best described as what?

Why

The deductible is the insured's upfront share, the amount you pay before the insurer's coverage kicks in for the year. A higher deductible usually means a lower premium, since you're absorbing more of the early cost. Hook: the deductible is what you pay first, before the insurer pays anything.

Question 8

Coinsurance in a health policy refers to what?

Why

Coinsurance is the sharing percentage that applies once the deductible is met; an 80/20 plan means the insurer pays 80% and the insured pays 20% of covered charges. It keeps the insured with some skin in the game. Hook: coinsurance is the percentage you and the insurer split after the deductible.

Question 9

A stop-loss (out-of-pocket maximum) provision does what for the insured?

Why

The stop-loss, or out-of-pocket maximum, protects the insured from runaway costs: once their deductible and coinsurance add up to the cap, the insurer pays 100% of covered charges for the rest of the period. Hook: stop-loss stops the bleeding, since after the cap the insured's share drops to zero.

Question 10

The Medical Information Bureau (MIB) primarily helps insurers do what?

Why

The MIB is a nonprofit information exchange whose member insurers report coded medical and risk information. It flags inconsistencies, such as a condition disclosed on a prior application but omitted on a new one, but an insurer can't decline coverage based on MIB data alone. Hook: the MIB is a tip-off network for catching omissions, not a stand-alone reason to decline.

8 Individual A&H Policy Provisions

Question 1

Under the optional unpaid premium provision, what may an insurer do when a claim is payable and a premium is overdue?

Why

The unpaid premium provision lets the insurer simply subtract any premium then due and unpaid from the benefits it pays out, rather than denying the claim. Hook: the insurer just nets the overdue premium out of the claim check.

Question 2

Under the proof of loss provision, the insured must generally submit proof of loss within how many days of a loss?

Why

Proof of loss, the documentation supporting the claim, must be furnished within 90 days after the loss, or as soon as reasonably possible. It's a longer window than the 20-day notice because it requires more detail. Hook: 20 days to notify, 90 days to prove.

Question 3

Under the payment of claims provision, to whom are health insurance benefits generally paid?

Why

Benefits are generally paid to the insured, while any death benefit (such as under AD&D) goes to the named beneficiary, or to the insured's estate if none is named. Hook: living benefits to the insured, death benefits to the beneficiary.

Question 4

Under the physical examination and autopsy provision, the insurer has the right to do what?

Why

While a claim is pending, the insurer may have the insured examined as often as reasonably necessary and, in the event of death, order an autopsy unless state law forbids it, with the insurer paying for these. Hook: during a claim the insurer can examine (or autopsy) at its own cost to verify the loss.

Question 5

Under the legal actions provision, how soon after submitting proof of loss may the insured bring a lawsuit against the insurer?

Why

The insured must wait at least 60 days after giving proof of loss before suing, which gives the insurer time to review and pay the claim. Hook: 60 days is the cooling-off floor before any lawsuit can start.

Question 6

Under the legal actions provision, what is the maximum time, generally, that an insured has to bring suit after proof of loss is required?

Why

The insured generally has up to 3 years (5 in some states) from the time proof of loss is required to file a lawsuit, after which the right to sue expires. Hook: at least 60 days before you can sue, no more than 3 years after, that's the legal-action window.

Question 7

Under the change of beneficiary provision, the policyowner may change the beneficiary at any time unless what is true?

Why

The owner keeps the right to change the beneficiary unless they've named an irrevocable beneficiary, in which case the beneficiary's written consent is required. Hook: revocable means change freely, irrevocable means you need the beneficiary's okay.

Question 8

The optional relation of earnings to insurance (average earnings) provision applies to disability coverage and does what?

Why

This provision prevents overinsurance on disability claims: if the benefits from all the insured's disability coverage would exceed their actual earnings, the insurer can proportionally reduce its benefit and refund the excess premium. The goal is to keep disability income from becoming more lucrative than working. Hook: it caps disability benefits at your earnings so you can't profit from being disabled.

Question 9

The optional illegal occupation provision allows the insurer to deny liability for a loss arising from what?

Why

This provision lets the insurer avoid paying for losses the insured suffers while committing or attempting a felony or from being engaged in an illegal occupation. Hook: get hurt while breaking the law in a serious way and the policy won't pay.

Question 10

The free look provision in an individual health policy typically gives the insured how long to return the policy for a full refund?

Why

The free look period, commonly 10 days, lets a new policyowner examine the policy and return it for a full premium refund if they decide it isn't right. Hook: about 10 days to look it over and back out for a full refund.

9 Disability Income & Related Insurance

Question 1

Under an "own occupation" (own occ) definition of total disability, the insured is considered totally disabled when they cannot do what?

Why

The own-occupation definition pays benefits when the insured can't perform the main duties of their specific occupation, even if they could work in some other field. It's the more generous definition because it judges disability against your actual career. Hook: own occ asks only whether you can do your own job.

Question 2

Under a presumptive disability provision, an insured is automatically considered totally disabled upon which of the following?

Why

Presumptive disability treats certain severe losses, such as total loss of sight, hearing, speech, or any two limbs, as automatically and totally disabling, so full benefits are paid even if the insured could technically still work. Often no elimination period applies. Hook: lose sight, hearing, speech, or two limbs and you're presumed totally disabled, no questions asked.

Question 3

Under a recurrent disability provision, if an insured returns to work and then becomes disabled again from the same cause within the stated period, the second disability is treated how?

Why

The recurrent disability provision says that a relapse from the same cause within a set time (often six months) counts as a continuation of the prior claim, so the insured doesn't have to satisfy a brand-new elimination period. A later, unrelated disability would start fresh. Hook: same cause, soon after, means it picks up where it left off, no new waiting period.

Question 4

How does choosing a longer elimination period generally affect the premium of a disability income policy?

Why

A longer elimination period means the insurer pays out less often and later, so it charges a lower premium. The insured accepts more of the short-term risk in exchange for a cheaper policy. Hook: wait longer to collect, pay less to own, so a longer elimination period means a lower premium.

Question 5

The benefit period in a disability income policy refers to what?

Why

The benefit period is the longest span the policy will keep paying for a single disability, such as 2 years, 5 years, or to age 65. A longer benefit period raises the premium. Hook: the benefit period is how long the checks can keep coming.

Question 6

A social insurance supplement (SIS) rider pays a benefit under which circumstance?

Why

A social insurance supplement rider is designed to fill the gap if Social Security disability benefits are denied, delayed, or paid at a reduced amount, paying the supplement in their place and stepping down as Social Security pays. Hook: the SIS rider covers the shortfall when Social Security disability falls through or comes up short.

Question 7

A rehabilitation benefit in a disability income policy is generally designed to do what?

Why

The rehabilitation benefit funds vocational training, education, or similar services that help a disabled insured re-enter the workforce, often while disability benefits continue during the program. It serves both the insured and the insurer, who would rather see a return to work. Hook: it pays to retrain you back into a job.

Question 8

Compared with group long-term disability (LTD), group short-term disability (STD) coverage generally does what?

Why

Short-term disability typically replaces a larger share of income (sometimes 60% to 70%) but only for weeks or months, while long-term disability pays a somewhat lower percentage for years or to retirement age. STD covers the early gap; LTD takes over for prolonged disabilities. Hook: STD pays more for a short time, LTD pays steadily for the long haul.

Question 9

Key person disability insurance is designed to do what for a business?

Why

Key person DI pays the business a benefit when an essential employee is disabled, helping cover lost productivity and the cost of recruiting or training a replacement. The business owns the policy and receives the benefit. Hook: it cushions the company when a key player can't work, much like key person life does at death.

Question 10

Workers' compensation disability benefits cover injuries and illnesses that are what?

Why

Workers' compensation is an occupational-only program: it pays for work-related injuries and illnesses regardless of fault, but covers nothing that happens off the job. That's why private and group DI often coordinate around it. Hook: workers' comp covers on-the-job harm only.

10 Medical Plans

Question 1

Basic medical expense (first-dollar) coverage is generally characterized by what?

Why

Basic medical expense plans (hospital, surgical, and physician expense) typically pay from the first dollar with little or no deductible, but they cap benefits at modest limits. They cover routine costs well but can run out fast for a catastrophic claim. Hook: basic plans pay early but shallow, low deductible and low ceiling.

Question 2

In a supplementary major medical plan, the corridor deductible refers to the amount the insured pays where?

Why

The corridor deductible is the gap the insured must cover between the exhaustion of the basic plan's benefits and the start of the supplementary major medical benefits. It links the two layers together. Hook: the corridor is the deductible bridge between basic running out and major medical starting.

Question 3

A major medical plan has an 80/20 coinsurance feature and a $2,000 out-of-pocket maximum (in addition to the deductible). Once the insured's coinsurance payments reach $2,000 for the year, what happens?

Why

The out-of-pocket maximum (stop-loss) caps the insured's coinsurance share. Once the insured has paid $2,000 in coinsurance, the plan switches to paying 100% of additional covered charges for the rest of the year, protecting against a catastrophic bill. Hook: hit the out-of-pocket max and your 20% share drops to 0%.

Question 4

Compared with a traditional HMO, a PPO generally does what regarding specialist access?

Why

PPOs typically don't use a gatekeeper, so members can go straight to a specialist without first getting a referral from a primary care physician. It's more convenient but usually costs more in premium than an HMO. Hook: no gatekeeper in a PPO, you can self-refer to specialists.

Question 5

A health savings account (HSA) may generally be established only by someone who is enrolled in what?

Why

HSAs are tied to HDHPs by law: you must be covered by a qualified high deductible health plan (and have no disqualifying coverage) to contribute. The high deductible is what the HSA is meant to help fund. Hook: no HDHP, no HSA, they're a required pair.

Question 6

Which of the following is true of a health savings account (HSA)?

Why

An HSA belongs to the individual, so it follows them from job to job, the balance rolls over year to year, and it offers strong tax treatment: deductible (or pre-tax) contributions, tax-free growth, and tax-free withdrawals for qualified medical expenses. Hook: an HSA is yours to keep, rolls over, and is tax-favored coming and going.

Question 7

A health reimbursement arrangement (HRA) is funded by whom?

Why

An HRA is funded solely by the employer, which sets aside money to reimburse employees for qualified medical expenses. Because the employer owns it, the rules on carryover and portability are set by the employer. Hook: the employer funds and owns the HRA.

Question 8

Precertification (prior authorization) in a managed care plan requires what?

Why

Precertification is a utilization-management tool: the plan reviews and approves certain planned services or admissions in advance to confirm they're medically necessary before agreeing to pay. Emergencies are generally exempt. Hook: precert means getting the plan's green light before non-emergency care.

Question 9

Under federal health reform rules, group and individual plans that offer dependent coverage must generally allow adult children to remain on a parent's plan until what age?

Why

Federal law generally lets young adults stay on a parent's health plan until they turn 26, regardless of student or marital status, when the plan offers dependent coverage. Hook: kids can ride a parent's plan to age 26.

Question 10

Under current federal health reform requirements, individual and small-group plans generally must do which of the following?

Why

Federal reform requires these plans to cover a core set of essential health benefits (things like hospitalization, prescription drugs, maternity, and preventive care) and bars them from denying coverage or claims based on pre-existing conditions. Hook: a guaranteed benefit floor, and no more pre-existing-condition lockouts.

11 Group Health Insurance

Question 1

In a group health plan, the individual covered members receive what document evidencing their coverage?

Why

The insurer issues one master contract to the group sponsor, and each covered member gets a certificate of coverage summarizing their benefits and rights. The members don't hold individual policies. Hook: the sponsor gets the master contract, the members get certificates.

Question 2

Under experience rating, a large group's premium is based primarily on what?

Why

Experience rating sets a group's premium according to its own claims history, so a group with low claims earns lower rates. It's common for larger groups, while smaller groups are often community rated using a broader pool. Hook: experience rating prices you on your own group's track record.

Question 3

Community rating sets premiums based on what?

Why

Community rating spreads risk across a wide pool and charges similar rates regardless of any one group's experience, which protects small groups from volatile pricing. It's the counterpart to experience rating. Hook: community rating prices everyone off the shared community pool, not your group alone.

Question 4

A group plan in which the employer pays the entire premium is called what?

Why

A noncontributory plan is fully employer-paid; the employee contributes nothing toward the premium. A contributory plan, by contrast, has the employee pay a share. Hook: noncontributory means the employee does not contribute, so the employer foots the whole bill.

Question 5

Federal COBRA continuation rights generally apply to employers with at least how many employees?

Why

COBRA applies to group health plans of employers with 20 or more employees. Smaller employers may be subject to state mini-COBRA laws instead. Hook: 20 employees is the federal COBRA threshold.

Question 6

Under COBRA, an employee who loses group coverage due to termination (other than for gross misconduct) or reduced hours may generally continue coverage for how long?

Why

Termination of employment (except for gross misconduct) or a reduction in hours is an 18-month qualifying event for the employee under COBRA. Hook: lose the job or the hours, get 18 months of COBRA.

Question 7

To exercise the group conversion privilege, the departing insured generally must apply within what timeframe after group coverage ends?

Why

Conversion must be requested within a short window after group coverage ends, commonly 31 days. Miss that window and the right to convert without evidence of insurability is lost. Hook: act fast, the conversion window is short, often about 31 days.

Question 8

When an employee is covered as an employee under their own group plan and as a dependent under a spouse's plan, coordination of benefits determines what?

Why

Coordination of benefits assigns one plan as primary (pays first) and the other as secondary (pays the balance up to allowable limits) so the total paid doesn't exceed the actual expense. Your own employer plan is usually primary for you. Hook: COB just sorts out who pays first and who pays the rest.

Question 9

When two group plans coordinate benefits on a $1,000 covered expense, what is the maximum the two plans together will pay?

Why

Coordination of benefits caps the combined payment at 100% of the actual covered expense, here $1,000, no matter how generous each plan is on its own. The primary pays first and the secondary covers the remainder up to that ceiling. Hook: two plans still pay only the real cost, never more than 100%.

Question 10

In a self-funded (self-insured) group health plan, who bears the financial risk of paying claims?

Why

In a self-funded plan, the employer assumes the risk and pays claims directly out of its own assets, often using a third-party administrator to process them and stop-loss insurance to cap catastrophic exposure. Hook: self-funded means the employer is effectively the insurer, paying claims itself.

12 Dental & Vision Insurance

Question 1

A scheduled (table of allowances) dental plan pays benefits how?

Why

A scheduled dental plan lists a set dollar benefit for each covered procedure, regardless of what the dentist actually charges. If the bill exceeds the schedule amount, the patient pays the difference. Hook: scheduled dental is a fixed price list, one dollar figure per procedure.

Question 2

Basic restorative dental services such as fillings and simple extractions are commonly covered at roughly what coinsurance level?

Why

Basic restorative procedures typically sit in the middle tier, often paid at around 80%, with the patient covering the remaining 20% after any deductible. Hook: basic care lands in the middle, often about 80% covered.

Question 3

Orthodontia coverage in a dental plan is typically characterized by what?

Why

Orthodontia is usually a distinct, optional benefit with its own lifetime maximum (not an annual one) and a lower coinsurance percentage, and it's frequently limited to dependent children. Hook: ortho stands apart, with its own lifetime cap, lower coverage, and often kids only.

Question 4

Which of the following would normally fall under the preventive/diagnostic category of a dental plan?

Why

Preventive and diagnostic care covers the routine maintenance items, cleanings, exams, and x-rays, that keep small problems from becoming big ones. Crowns and bridges are major services, and braces are orthodontia. Hook: cleanings and x-rays are textbook preventive care.

Question 5

The annual maximum benefit in a dental plan refers to what?

Why

The annual (calendar-year) maximum is the ceiling on what the plan pays per covered person each year; once reached, the patient pays the rest until the maximum resets the following year. Dental annual maximums are often modest. Hook: the annual max is the plan's yearly payout ceiling per person.

Question 6

A dental plan has a $1,500 annual maximum. A patient has already received $1,300 in paid benefits this year and now needs a procedure for which the plan would otherwise pay $400. How much will the plan pay for this procedure?

Why

Only $200 of the annual maximum remains ($1,500 minus the $1,300 already paid), so the plan pays $200 toward this procedure and the patient covers the rest. The annual maximum caps total payments regardless of the individual procedure's coinsurance. Hook: the plan pays only what's left under the annual max, here $200, and the patient absorbs the overage.

Question 7

Group dental coverage is most commonly offered how, relative to the medical plan?

Why

Dental is usually written as its own standalone plan rather than folded into major medical, with its own premium, deductible, maximums, and benefit tiers. Employers often offer it as a separate elective benefit. Hook: dental typically stands on its own, separate from the medical plan.

Question 8

A routine vision care plan typically provides benefits for which of the following?

Why

Routine vision coverage handles the everyday eye-care items, periodic exams plus eyewear like lenses, frames, and contacts, usually through allowances and frequency limits. Disease and surgery fall under medical coverage instead. Hook: routine vision means exams and eyewear, not eye disease or surgery.

Question 9

A patient is treated for glaucoma, an eye disease. Under which coverage is this care most likely paid?

Why

Treatment of eye disease or injury, like glaucoma, cataracts, or an eye infection, is medical care and is covered under the health plan, not the routine vision plan, which handles only exams and eyewear. Hook: disease and injury to the eye go through medical coverage; routine vision handles glasses and checkups.

Question 10

Many vision plans operate through a network of providers, paying higher benefits when the member uses an in-network optometrist or optician. This resembles which model?

Why

Network-based vision plans work much like a PPO: members get the best benefit (often a richer allowance or lower copay) by using in-network providers, with reduced benefits out of network. Hook: vision networks follow the PPO playbook, best deal inside the network.

13 Senior & Special Needs Health Insurance

Question 1

Medicare Part A primarily covers which of the following?

Why

Part A is hospital insurance: it covers inpatient hospital stays, limited skilled nursing facility care, home health care, and hospice. Everyday doctor visits fall under Part B. Hook: Part A is the hospital side, inpatient, skilled nursing, home health, hospice.

Question 2

After the annual Part B deductible is met, Medicare Part B generally pays what share of the approved amount for covered services?

Why

Once the yearly Part B deductible is satisfied, Medicare typically pays 80% of the approved amount and the beneficiary pays the remaining 20% coinsurance. That open-ended 20% is a common reason people add a Medicare Supplement. Hook: Part B pays 80, you pay 20, with no built-in cap on your share.

Question 3

Medicare Part D prescription drug coverage is provided how?

Why

Part D plans are offered by private insurers approved by Medicare, and enrollment is voluntary (with a possible late penalty for delaying). Beneficiaries choose a plan that fits their medications. Hook: Part D is private, optional drug coverage you sign up for.

Question 4

Medicare Supplement policies are standardized, meaning what?

Why

Medigap plans are standardized into lettered plans (Plan A, Plan G, Plan N, and so on); a given lettered plan offers identical core benefits no matter which insurer sells it, so consumers can compare on price and service. Hook: same letter equals same benefits, whoever sells it.

Question 5

The Medicare Supplement open enrollment period is a 6-month window that begins when the applicant is what?

Why

The Medigap open enrollment period runs for 6 months starting when the person is 65 or older and enrolled in Part B. During this window, coverage is guaranteed-issue: the insurer can't deny coverage or charge more for health reasons. Hook: 65 plus Part B starts a 6-month guaranteed-issue Medigap window.

Question 6

A Medicare Supplement policy generally must include a free look period of how long?

Why

Medigap policies carry a 30-day free look, letting the buyer return the policy for a full refund if they change their mind. It's longer than the typical individual-policy free look. Hook: Medigap gives a generous 30-day free look.

Question 7

Long-term care (LTC) insurance is designed mainly to cover what?

Why

LTC insurance fills the gap left by Medicare, which doesn't pay for ongoing custodial care, by covering help with daily living over an extended period, whether in a facility or at home. Hook: LTC covers the long-term custodial care Medicare leaves out.

Question 8

Which of the following is one of the standard activities of daily living (ADLs) used as an LTC benefit trigger?

Why

The six ADLs are bathing, dressing, eating, transferring (moving in and out of a bed or chair), toileting, and continence. They measure basic self-care, not complex tasks like driving or managing finances. Hook: ADLs are the basics, bathing, dressing, eating, transferring, toileting, continence.

Question 9

Besides being unable to perform ADLs, an LTC policy generally also pays benefits when the insured has what?

Why

LTC benefits are also triggered by severe cognitive impairment, such as Alzheimer's or other dementia, even if the person can still physically perform ADLs, because they need supervision for safety. Hook: serious cognitive decline is its own LTC trigger, separate from the ADL test.

Question 10

The elimination period in a long-term care policy functions as what?

Why

Like the elimination period in disability income coverage, the LTC elimination period is the number of days at the start of care the insured pays out of pocket before policy benefits begin; a longer one lowers the premium. Hook: the elimination period is the upfront waiting stretch before LTC benefits start.

14 Federal Tax Considerations — Health Insurance

Question 1

Benefits received under a personal medical expense (health) policy that reimburse the insured for medical costs are generally treated how?

Why

Medical expense benefits simply reimburse what you spent on care, so they aren't treated as income and are received tax-free. You can't deduct the same expense the insurer reimbursed, though. Hook: getting paid back for medical bills isn't income, so it's tax-free.

Question 2

When an employer pays the premiums for a group disability income plan and deducts them as a business expense, how are the benefits taxed to the employee?

Why

If the employer paid (and deducted) the premiums and the employee was never taxed on them, the disability benefits are taxable to the employee when received; the tax simply shifts to the back end. Hook: employer-paid, employer-deducted DI premiums mean the employee is taxed on the benefits.

Question 3

Premiums an employer pays for a group health (medical expense) plan covering employees are generally treated how for the employer?

Why

Employer-paid group health premiums are a deductible business expense, a major reason employers offer health benefits. Hook: the employer writes off group health premiums as a business cost.

Question 4

Medical expense benefits an employee receives under an employer group health plan are generally what?

Why

Just like individual medical expense benefits, group medical benefits reimburse care and aren't treated as income, so they're tax-free to the employee. Hook: group medical benefits reimburse bills, so they're tax-free.

Question 5

Employer-provided group health coverage is considered tax-favored mainly because what?

Why

The combination is what makes it powerful: the employer deducts the premium as a business expense, and the employee pays no tax on either the coverage or the benefits. Hook: deductible for the employer, tax-free for the employee, the best of both ends.

Question 6

When an employer pays group disability income premiums, those premiums are generally treated how for the employee at the time they are paid?

Why

The employer's premium payments aren't taxed to the employee when paid; the tax is deferred to the benefit stage if a claim arises. Hook: the premium isn't taxed now, the benefit is taxed later instead.

Question 7

An employee receives disability benefits from a plan whose premiums the employer paid entirely and deducted. How should the employee treat those benefits?

Why

Since the employer funded and deducted all the premiums and the employee was never taxed on them, the full benefit is taxable income to the employee. Hook: fully employer-funded DI means a fully taxable benefit.

Question 8

A non-qualified HSA withdrawal made before age 65 is generally treated how?

Why

Pull HSA money out for non-medical reasons before age 65 and it's taxed as ordinary income plus a 20% penalty. After 65, non-qualified withdrawals are taxable but penalty-free (like an IRA). Hook: misuse the HSA early and it's income tax plus a steep 20% penalty.

Question 9

Reimbursements an employee receives from an employer-funded health reimbursement arrangement (HRA) for qualified medical expenses are generally treated how?

Why

HRA reimbursements for qualified medical expenses are tax-free to the employee, and the employer funds and deducts the arrangement, another tax-favored health benefit. Hook: employer-funded HRA reimbursements reach the employee tax-free.

Question 10

Premiums for a tax-qualified long-term care policy may be treated how for an individual who itemizes?

Why

Premiums for a tax-qualified LTC policy count as deductible medical expenses, but only up to age-based dollar limits and only to the extent total medical costs exceed the AGI floor. Hook: qualified LTC premiums can be deducted, within age caps and the usual medical-expense floor.

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