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Free Delaware Accident & Health Practice Questions

Real questions in the style of the Delaware Accident & Health licensing exam, pulled straight from the TESTivity course, each with a plain-English explanation. Start with the Delaware-specific rules below, then work the rest, and unlock the full simulator when you're ready to drill.

Questions on exam92
Passing score70%
Test providerPearson VUE
Time limitNot published
Pass rate48%

That's right — 52% of test-takers do not pass the Delaware Accident & Health exam on their first attempt. Make sure you're part of the 48% who do.

First-time pass rate: 48% · Source: NAIC, 2024 (most recent available statistics)

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1 Insurance Basics & Foundational Concepts

Question 1

Which type of risk is the only kind that insurance is designed to cover?

Why

Insurance only deals with pure risk: situations where there's a chance of loss or no loss, but no chance of gain (like your house burning down). Speculative risk involves a chance of loss, no loss, OR gain. That's gambling and investing, and insurers won't touch it. If there's an upside, it's not insurable.

Question 2

An insured who becomes careless about safety simply because they know they have insurance is displaying a:

Why

Morale hazard is the 'eh, I'm covered' attitude: indifference or carelessness that creeps in because insurance exists. It's not dishonesty (that's moral hazard) and it's not a physical condition (physical hazard). Trick to remember: moralE hazard is about a person's lazy attitudE.

Question 3

The law of large numbers is important to insurers because it:

Why

An insurer can't predict whether your house specifically will burn down, but give them a big enough pool of similar homes and they can predict pretty accurately how many out of the whole group will. That's the law of large numbers: more similar exposures, more reliable predictions. It's the statistical engine that makes pricing coverage possible at all.

Question 4

Purchasing an insurance policy is an example of which risk management technique?

Why

Buying insurance is the classic risk transfer: you hand the financial consequences of a loss to the insurer in exchange for a premium. Avoidance means not doing the risky thing at all, retention means keeping the risk yourself (like a deductible), and reduction means lowering the odds or severity (smoke detectors). Insurance equals transfer.

Question 5

The principle of indemnity is best described as:

Why

Indemnity is the whole heartbeat of insurance: you get made whole, not rich. The goal is to put you back where you were financially right before the loss, no better, no worse. That's why you can't insure a $20,000 car for $80,000 and cash in. Insurance reimburses a loss; it doesn't hand out winnings.

Question 6

For the law of large numbers to work effectively, the exposures in a group should be:

Why

The law of large numbers needs lots of similar exposures to make predictions reliable. A big pool of comparable homes lets the insurer forecast losses; a handful of wildly different ones doesn't. And concentrating them all in one spot is actually bad: one hurricane could wipe out the whole pool at once.

Question 7

An agent who collects premiums on behalf of an insurer holds those funds in a:

Why

Premiums an agent collects belong to the insurer, not the agent, so the agent holds them in a fiduciary capacity, a position of financial trust. Mixing that money with personal funds (commingling) is a big no-no and a fast way to lose a license.

Question 8

The authority specifically granted to an agent in the agency contract is known as:

Why

Express authority is the authority written right into the agency agreement, the powers the insurer explicitly hands the agent. Implied authority fills in the gaps needed to use that express authority, and apparent authority is what the public reasonably assumes. Express equals expressly stated.

Question 9

Because an insurance policy is drafted by the insurer and offered to the applicant on a 'take it or leave it' basis, it is classified as a contract of:

Why

A contract of adhesion is written by one party (the insurer) and accepted as-is by the other, with no line-by-line negotiating. The practical kicker: because the insured didn't get to write it, any ambiguity is interpreted in the insured's favor. That's a courtroom rule worth knowing.

Question 10

Insurance contracts are considered 'unilateral' because:

Why

Unilateral means only one side makes a legally enforceable promise, and it's the insurer, who promises to pay covered claims. The insured doesn't actually promise to keep paying premiums; they just won't get coverage if they stop. One enforceable promise equals unilateral.

2 Accident & Health Insurance Basics

Question 1

Accident and health insurance is designed to cover financial losses arising from which two perils?

Why

A&H insurance exists to handle the two ways your health can cost you money: accidents (sudden injuries) and sickness (illnesses and conditions). Whether the policy pays for medical bills or lost income, those are the two triggering perils. Hook: A&H equals the two perils right in the name, accident and sickness.

Question 2

Medical expense insurance is designed to do what?

Why

Medical expense insurance pays for the care itself, hospital stays, surgery, doctor visits, and related services, rather than replacing income. It's the bucket most people picture when they hear health insurance. Hook: medical expense pays the providers; disability income pays you.

Question 3

Under an AD&D policy, the capital sum refers to what?

Why

The principal sum is the full benefit, paid for accidental death or for severe losses like both hands or both eyes. The capital sum is a percentage of that principal sum, paid for the loss of a single member or sight in one eye. Hook: principal sum is the whole pie (death or two losses); capital sum is a slice (one loss).

Question 4

Compared with individual health insurance, group health coverage generally does what regarding underwriting?

Why

Group coverage is underwritten on the group as a whole, its size, industry, and demographics, rather than screening each person's health. That's why an employee can usually enroll without a medical exam during the eligibility window. Hook: group underwriting looks at the group, not each individual's medical history.

Question 5

Under a noncancelable health policy, the insurer generally may do which of the following until the stated age?

Why

Noncancelable is the strongest renewal guarantee for the insured: the insurer can't cancel, can't refuse renewal, and can't raise the premium beyond what the policy already states, all the way to the stated age. Hook: noncancelable locks everything, coverage and premium alike, in the insured's favor.

Question 6

A guaranteed renewable health policy allows the insurer to do what?

Why

Guaranteed renewable means the insurer must renew the policy to the stated age, but it may raise premiums as long as the increase applies to a whole class of policyholders, never singling out one person. Hook: guaranteed renewal of the coverage, but the price can move for the whole class.

Question 7

Which renewability classification gives the insured the least security?

Why

A cancelable policy lets the insurer terminate coverage at virtually any time with proper written notice (returning any unearned premium), making it the least secure arrangement for the insured. The other classifications all restrict when, or whether, the insurer can walk away. Hook: cancelable means the insurer can pull the plug almost anytime, so it's the weakest guarantee.

Question 8

A deductible in a health insurance policy is best described as what?

Why

The deductible is the insured's upfront share, the amount you pay before the insurer's coverage kicks in for the year. A higher deductible usually means a lower premium, since you're absorbing more of the early cost. Hook: the deductible is what you pay first, before the insurer pays anything.

Question 9

Coinsurance in a health policy refers to what?

Why

Coinsurance is the sharing percentage that applies once the deductible is met; an 80/20 plan means the insurer pays 80% and the insured pays 20% of covered charges. It keeps the insured with some skin in the game. Hook: coinsurance is the percentage you and the insurer split after the deductible.

Question 10

Under the Fair Credit Reporting Act, an applicant must be notified when which of the following may be obtained?

Why

The Fair Credit Reporting Act requires that an applicant be told, in advance, that an investigative consumer report, which gathers information on character, lifestyle, and reputation through interviews, may be obtained. The applicant also has the right to learn the nature and scope of the report. Hook: the FCRA guarantees you advance notice that a lifestyle or reputation report may be pulled.

3 Individual A&H Policy Provisions

Question 1

Under the model uniform provisions, the grace period for a health policy with monthly premiums is generally how long?

Why

The grace period varies with how often premiums are paid: 7 days for weekly premiums, 10 days for monthly premiums, and 31 days for any other mode. The less often you pay, the longer the grace period. Hook: weekly 7, monthly 10, everything else 31, so the rarer the payment, the longer the grace.

Question 2

Under the optional unpaid premium provision, what may an insurer do when a claim is payable and a premium is overdue?

Why

The unpaid premium provision lets the insurer simply subtract any premium then due and unpaid from the benefits it pays out, rather than denying the claim. Hook: the insurer just nets the overdue premium out of the claim check.

Question 3

Under the notice of claim provision, the insured must generally give written notice of a claim within how many days of a loss?

Why

Written notice of claim must be given within 20 days after a covered loss, or as soon as reasonably possible. It simply alerts the insurer that a claim is coming. Hook: 20 days to put the insurer on notice that a loss occurred.

Question 4

After receiving notice of a claim, the insurer must furnish claim forms to the insured within how many days?

Why

The insurer has 15 days after notice of claim to send the claimant the forms used to file proof of loss. Hook: notice of claim starts a 15-day clock for the insurer to provide claim forms.

Question 5

Under the physical examination and autopsy provision, the insurer has the right to do what?

Why

While a claim is pending, the insurer may have the insured examined as often as reasonably necessary and, in the event of death, order an autopsy unless state law forbids it, with the insurer paying for these. Hook: during a claim the insurer can examine (or autopsy) at its own cost to verify the loss.

Question 6

Under the change of occupation provision, if an insured switches to a less hazardous occupation, the insurer will generally do what?

Why

Move to safer work and the insurer reduces the premium to the lower-risk rate, refunding the excess premium already paid for the period. The change works in the insured's favor here. Hook: a safer job means a lower premium and money back.

Question 7

Under the optional misstatement of age provision, if an insured's age was stated incorrectly, the insurer will do what at claim time?

Why

Because age affects the premium, a misstatement is corrected by adjusting the benefit rather than canceling coverage: the insurer pays what the premium actually paid would have bought at the true age. Hook: a wrong age just resizes the benefit to match what you really paid for.

Question 8

The optional illegal occupation provision allows the insurer to deny liability for a loss arising from what?

Why

This provision lets the insurer avoid paying for losses the insured suffers while committing or attempting a felony or from being engaged in an illegal occupation. Hook: get hurt while breaking the law in a serious way and the policy won't pay.

Question 9

In an individual health policy, a pre-existing condition is generally defined as what?

Why

A pre-existing condition is one that was diagnosed, treated, or for which advice was sought (or that a prudent person would have sought treatment for) before the coverage took effect. Policies may limit or exclude such conditions for a time. Hook: pre-existing means it was already on the radar, treated or advised, before coverage began.

Question 10

A probationary (waiting) period in a health policy is best described as what?

Why

A probationary period is an initial stretch, often the first 15 to 30 days after the policy starts, during which sickness-related losses aren't yet covered; it keeps someone from buying a policy after symptoms appear. Accident coverage usually begins right away. Hook: a short waiting period at the start before sickness benefits kick in.

4 Disability Income & Related Insurance

Question 1

A residual disability benefit pays an amount based on what?

Why

Residual disability coverage pays a partial benefit scaled to your loss of income, so if a disability cuts your earnings by 40%, you collect roughly 40% of the total disability benefit. It bridges the gap when you can work but not at full capacity. Hook: residual benefits track your percentage of lost income.

Question 2

The elimination period in a disability income policy is best described as what?

Why

The elimination (or waiting) period is the time after a disability begins before benefits start to accrue, functioning like a time deductible. A 90-day elimination period means no benefits for the first 90 days. Hook: the elimination period is the unpaid waiting stretch before benefits begin.

Question 3

How does choosing a longer elimination period generally affect the premium of a disability income policy?

Why

A longer elimination period means the insurer pays out less often and later, so it charges a lower premium. The insured accepts more of the short-term risk in exchange for a cheaper policy. Hook: wait longer to collect, pay less to own, so a longer elimination period means a lower premium.

Question 4

The benefit period in a disability income policy refers to what?

Why

The benefit period is the longest span the policy will keep paying for a single disability, such as 2 years, 5 years, or to age 65. A longer benefit period raises the premium. Hook: the benefit period is how long the checks can keep coming.

Question 5

An insured with a 60-day elimination period becomes disabled. When do benefits begin to accrue?

Why

No benefits are paid during the elimination period, so with a 60-day elimination period, benefits start accruing only after those 60 days of continuous disability have passed. The insured covers that initial gap themselves. Hook: nothing is paid until the elimination period clock runs out.

Question 6

Why do disability income policies generally limit benefits to a percentage of the insured's income rather than 100%?

Why

Insurers cap benefits below full income (and below what you'd net after taxes, since the benefits are often tax-free) so the insured always has a financial reason to recover and return to work. Paying 100% could encourage staying disabled, known as malingering. Hook: benefits stop short of full pay so working still beats collecting.

Question 7

An insured earns $5,000 per month and owns a disability income policy that pays a 60% benefit. Ignoring any other coverage, what is the monthly disability benefit?

Why

The benefit is simply 60% of monthly earned income: 0.60 times $5,000 equals $3,000 per month. The remaining 40% stays uninsured on purpose, preserving the incentive to return to work. Hook: 60% of $5,000 is $3,000, the monthly check.

Question 8

Key person disability insurance is designed to do what for a business?

Why

Key person DI pays the business a benefit when an essential employee is disabled, helping cover lost productivity and the cost of recruiting or training a replacement. The business owns the policy and receives the benefit. Hook: it cushions the company when a key player can't work, much like key person life does at death.

Question 9

Workers' compensation disability benefits cover injuries and illnesses that are what?

Why

Workers' compensation is an occupational-only program: it pays for work-related injuries and illnesses regardless of fault, but covers nothing that happens off the job. That's why private and group DI often coordinate around it. Hook: workers' comp covers on-the-job harm only.

Question 10

To qualify for Social Security disability benefits, a worker generally must be unable to do what?

Why

Social Security uses a strict any-occupation standard: the worker must be unable to engage in any substantial gainful activity, and the condition must be expected to last at least 12 months or end in death. Many private claims would not meet this tough definition. Hook: Social Security disability is the strictest test, no substantial work of any kind, lasting a year or fatal.

5 Medical Plans

Question 1

Basic medical expense (first-dollar) coverage is generally characterized by what?

Why

Basic medical expense plans (hospital, surgical, and physician expense) typically pay from the first dollar with little or no deductible, but they cap benefits at modest limits. They cover routine costs well but can run out fast for a catastrophic claim. Hook: basic plans pay early but shallow, low deductible and low ceiling.

Question 2

A major medical plan has an 80/20 coinsurance feature and a $2,000 out-of-pocket maximum (in addition to the deductible). Once the insured's coinsurance payments reach $2,000 for the year, what happens?

Why

The out-of-pocket maximum (stop-loss) caps the insured's coinsurance share. Once the insured has paid $2,000 in coinsurance, the plan switches to paying 100% of additional covered charges for the rest of the year, protecting against a catastrophic bill. Hook: hit the out-of-pocket max and your 20% share drops to 0%.

Question 3

With a few exceptions such as emergencies, an HMO generally covers services only when they are provided by whom?

Why

HMOs require members to use the plan's network of providers (outside of true emergencies), which is how they control cost and coordinate care. Go outside the network and the service generally isn't covered. Hook: HMO equals in-network only, except for emergencies.

Question 4

In a traditional HMO, the primary care physician (PCP) acts as a gatekeeper, meaning the PCP does what?

Why

The gatekeeper PCP manages each member's care and must provide a referral before the member can see a specialist, which keeps utilization, and cost, under control. Hook: in an HMO, you go through the gatekeeper PCP to reach a specialist.

Question 5

A key feature of a preferred provider organization (PPO) is that members may do what?

Why

A PPO offers a network of providers at discounted rates but still lets members go out of network; they just pay more (higher deductible or coinsurance) when they do. That flexibility is the PPO's main selling point over an HMO. Hook: a PPO lets you leave the network, for a price.

Question 6

A point-of-service (POS) plan is best described as what?

Why

A POS plan blends the two models: members pick a primary care physician and get the best benefits in network (HMO-style), but they can still go out of network at a higher cost (PPO-style). They decide at the point of service. Hook: POS is the HMO-PPO hybrid, gatekeeper inside, freedom outside for more money.

Question 7

Consumer-directed health plans (such as HDHPs paired with HSAs) are designed mainly to do what?

Why

Consumer-directed plans put more decision-making, and more of the early cost, in the consumer's hands, pairing a high deductible with a tax-favored account so people shop more carefully for care. Hook: consumer-directed means you steer the spending, with skin in the game.

Question 8

Precertification (prior authorization) in a managed care plan requires what?

Why

Precertification is a utilization-management tool: the plan reviews and approves certain planned services or admissions in advance to confirm they're medically necessary before agreeing to pay. Emergencies are generally exempt. Hook: precert means getting the plan's green light before non-emergency care.

Question 9

When a person is covered by two group health plans, the coordination of benefits (COB) provision ensures what?

Why

Coordination of benefits prevents duplicate payment when someone has two plans: one is designated primary and pays first, the other is secondary and may cover the remainder, but the total can't exceed the actual cost. It stops the insured from making money on a claim. Hook: COB keeps two plans from paying more than 100% combined, primary first, secondary second.

Question 10

Under federal health reform rules, group and individual plans that offer dependent coverage must generally allow adult children to remain on a parent's plan until what age?

Why

Federal law generally lets young adults stay on a parent's health plan until they turn 26, regardless of student or marital status, when the plan offers dependent coverage. Hook: kids can ride a parent's plan to age 26.

6 Group Health Insurance

Question 1

Under experience rating, a large group's premium is based primarily on what?

Why

Experience rating sets a group's premium according to its own claims history, so a group with low claims earns lower rates. It's common for larger groups, while smaller groups are often community rated using a broader pool. Hook: experience rating prices you on your own group's track record.

Question 2

Community rating sets premiums based on what?

Why

Community rating spreads risk across a wide pool and charges similar rates regardless of any one group's experience, which protects small groups from volatile pricing. It's the counterpart to experience rating. Hook: community rating prices everyone off the shared community pool, not your group alone.

Question 3

A new employee who must wait a set time after being hired before becoming eligible for the group plan is in what period?

Why

The probationary period is the initial stretch of employment, often 30 to 90 days, that a new hire must complete before becoming eligible to enroll. It's followed by the enrollment (eligibility) period when they can actually sign up. Hook: the probationary period is the wait before a new hire can even enroll.

Question 4

In a contributory group plan, where employees pay part of the premium, insurers typically require what minimum level of participation?

Why

Because employees share the cost in a contributory plan, not everyone signs up, so insurers usually require around 75% participation to guard against adverse selection. Hook: contributory plans need roughly three-quarters in to keep the risk pool healthy.

Question 5

An employee who declines coverage during the initial enrollment period and later wants to join is generally treated as what?

Why

Someone who passes up the on-time enrollment window becomes a late enrollee and may have to provide evidence of insurability or wait until an open enrollment period to join. The penalty discourages waiting until you're sick to sign up. Hook: enroll late and you may have to prove insurability or wait, the cost of not signing up on time.

Question 6

Under COBRA, which qualifying event generally entitles a spouse or dependent to up to 36 months of continuation?

Why

Events such as divorce or legal separation, the covered employee's death, the employee becoming entitled to Medicare, or a child losing dependent status give the spouse or dependents up to 36 months of COBRA continuation. Hook: family-status events like divorce and death stretch COBRA to 36 months for dependents.

Question 7

Under COBRA, an employee who is terminated for which reason is generally NOT entitled to continuation coverage?

Why

Termination for gross misconduct is the key exception; it does not trigger COBRA rights. Ordinary terminations, layoffs, and resignations do qualify. Hook: gross misconduct is the one firing that forfeits COBRA.

Question 8

HIPAA's portability provisions were designed primarily to do what?

Why

HIPAA aimed to make health coverage more portable, limiting how pre-existing condition exclusions could be applied when someone changed jobs and crediting prior coverage. It also barred group plans from discriminating based on health status. Hook: HIPAA is about portability, carrying coverage from one job to the next without being penalized for prior conditions.

Question 9

Under HIPAA, prior health coverage that can reduce a new plan's pre-existing condition exclusion period is known as what?

Why

Creditable coverage is prior, generally continuous, health coverage that gets credited against any pre-existing condition waiting period a new plan might impose, shortening or eliminating it. Hook: creditable coverage is the prior coverage you get credit for when you switch plans.

Question 10

Self-funded employer health plans are primarily governed by which federal law rather than by state insurance regulation?

Why

Self-funded employer plans fall largely under ERISA, a federal law, which is one reason employers choose self-funding: it exempts them from many state insurance mandates. Hook: self-funded plans answer mainly to ERISA at the federal level.

7 Dental & Vision Insurance

Question 1

A scheduled (table of allowances) dental plan pays benefits how?

Why

A scheduled dental plan lists a set dollar benefit for each covered procedure, regardless of what the dentist actually charges. If the bill exceeds the schedule amount, the patient pays the difference. Hook: scheduled dental is a fixed price list, one dollar figure per procedure.

Question 2

A combination dental plan does what?

Why

A combination plan blends the two methods, often paying preventive and basic care on a UCR percentage basis while using a fixed schedule for certain services (or vice versa), to balance predictability and flexibility. Hook: a combination plan mixes scheduled and nonscheduled methods in one plan.

Question 3

A dental HMO (DHMO) generally pays participating dentists how?

Why

Like a medical HMO, a DHMO pays network dentists a capitation fee, a set amount per member assigned to them regardless of services used, and members generally must use network dentists. It emphasizes prepaid, managed dental care. Hook: a DHMO pays dentists per member (capitation), not per procedure.

Question 4

A dental PPO is characterized by what?

Why

A dental PPO contracts with a network of dentists who accept negotiated (discounted) fees, while still letting members see out-of-network dentists at a higher out-of-pocket cost. It mirrors the medical PPO model. Hook: a dental PPO is the discounted-network-with-an-exit-option model.

Question 5

Major dental services such as crowns, bridges, and dentures are most commonly covered at approximately what coinsurance level, and why lower than preventive care?

Why

Major services are usually covered at about 50%, the lowest tier, because they are expensive, so the plan shifts more of the cost to the patient through higher coinsurance. The three-tier 100/80/50 pattern is the classic dental structure. Hook: the bigger and pricier the work, the smaller the share the plan pays, with major care around 50%.

Question 6

In a typical dental plan, the deductible most often applies to which services?

Why

To encourage preventive care, plans commonly waive the deductible on cleanings and exams while applying it to basic and major services. That keeps the barrier off the care the plan most wants people to use. Hook: the deductible usually skips preventive care and lands on basic and major work.

Question 7

Many dental plans impose a waiting period before covering which services?

Why

Plans often require a waiting period (such as 6 to 12 months) before paying for expensive major services, which discourages someone from enrolling, getting costly work, and then dropping the plan. Preventive care is usually available immediately. Hook: big-ticket dental work often comes with a waiting period; cleanings do not.

Question 8

Which of the following is typically excluded from dental coverage?

Why

Dental plans generally exclude purely cosmetic work, like whitening or veneers done solely for appearance, since it isn't medically necessary. Functional and preventive care is what's covered. Hook: cosmetic-only dental work is on you; the plan covers function, not vanity.

Question 9

A vision plan that covers an eye exam once every 12 months and new frames once every 24 months is using what feature?

Why

Frequency limitations cap how often each benefit can be used, such as one exam per year and frames every other year, controlling cost while still meeting routine needs. Hook: frequency limits set how often you can use each vision benefit.

Question 10

A managed vision care plan that contracts with providers paid on a per-member basis and requires members to use those providers most resembles which model?

Why

A managed vision plan that pays providers a fixed amount per member and limits members to its network mirrors the HMO/capitation model, trading provider choice for lower cost. Hook: capitation plus a required network equals the HMO model, applied to vision.

8 Senior & Special Needs Health Insurance

Question 1

Besides reaching age 65, a person may qualify for Medicare in which situation?

Why

People under 65 can get Medicare if they've received Social Security disability benefits for 24 months, and certain conditions (end-stage renal disease, ALS) qualify sooner. Hook: long-term disability, not just age 65, can open the Medicare door.

Question 2

The Initial Enrollment Period for Medicare is generally how long, centered on the person's 65th birthday month?

Why

The Initial Enrollment Period spans 7 months: the 3 months before your 65th-birthday month, that month itself, and the 3 months after. Enrolling on time avoids late penalties. Hook: a 7-month window, three before, the month of, and three after your 65th.

Question 3

Medicare Part A measures hospital and skilled nursing benefits using what?

Why

Part A uses benefit periods: one begins when you're admitted and ends after you've been out of a hospital or skilled nursing facility for 60 days in a row. A new stay after that starts a new benefit period (and a new deductible). Hook: a Part A benefit period resets only after 60 days fully out of care.

Question 4

Medicare Part D prescription drug coverage is provided how?

Why

Part D plans are offered by private insurers approved by Medicare, and enrollment is voluntary (with a possible late penalty for delaying). Beneficiaries choose a plan that fits their medications. Hook: Part D is private, optional drug coverage you sign up for.

Question 5

A Medicare Supplement (Medigap) policy is designed to do what?

Why

Medigap policies, sold by private insurers, pay some or all of the out-of-pocket costs Original Medicare leaves behind, like the Part A deductible and the Part B 20% coinsurance. They work alongside Original Medicare, not in place of it. Hook: Medigap fills the holes Original Medicare leaves.

Question 6

The Medicare Supplement open enrollment period is a 6-month window that begins when the applicant is what?

Why

The Medigap open enrollment period runs for 6 months starting when the person is 65 or older and enrolled in Part B. During this window, coverage is guaranteed-issue: the insurer can't deny coverage or charge more for health reasons. Hook: 65 plus Part B starts a 6-month guaranteed-issue Medigap window.

Question 7

A Medicare Supplement policy generally must include a free look period of how long?

Why

Medigap policies carry a 30-day free look, letting the buyer return the policy for a full refund if they change their mind. It's longer than the typical individual-policy free look. Hook: Medigap gives a generous 30-day free look.

Question 8

A tax-qualified long-term care policy typically begins paying benefits when the insured cannot perform how many activities of daily living (ADLs)?

Why

Tax-qualified LTC policies generally pay when the insured is unable to perform at least two of the six ADLs (bathing, dressing, eating, transferring, toileting, and continence) for an expected period, or has a severe cognitive impairment. Hook: lose two of the six ADLs and tax-qualified LTC benefits kick in.

Question 9

Besides being unable to perform ADLs, an LTC policy generally also pays benefits when the insured has what?

Why

LTC benefits are also triggered by severe cognitive impairment, such as Alzheimer's or other dementia, even if the person can still physically perform ADLs, because they need supervision for safety. Hook: serious cognitive decline is its own LTC trigger, separate from the ADL test.

Question 10

Long-term care insurance commonly covers care delivered in which range of settings?

Why

Modern LTC policies cover care across a spectrum of settings, skilled nursing facilities, assisted living, adult day care centers, and care provided in the insured's own home, reflecting how people actually receive long-term care. Hook: good LTC follows the care wherever it happens, from a nursing home to your own living room.

9 Federal Tax Considerations — Health Insurance

Question 1

Premiums an individual pays for their own personal health insurance are generally treated how for federal income tax?

Why

Personal health insurance premiums generally aren't deductible, though they may count toward the itemized medical expense deduction if total medical costs clear the AGI threshold. Hook: personal health premiums usually get no deduction, paid with after-tax dollars.

Question 2

Unreimbursed medical and dental expenses are deductible as an itemized deduction only to the extent they exceed what?

Why

Itemizers can deduct unreimbursed medical expenses, but only the portion that exceeds a set percentage of AGI (currently 7.5%). Expenses below that floor aren't deductible. Hook: only medical costs above the AGI floor count, and only if you itemize.

Question 3

Which principle best summarizes how disability income benefits are taxed based on who paid the premium and how?

Why

The governing rule is symmetry: tax-free premiums going in lead to taxable benefits coming out, and after-tax premiums going in lead to tax-free benefits coming out. It applies across both individual and group disability coverage. Hook: the tax gets paid somewhere, either on the premium or on the benefit, never both and never neither.

Question 4

When an employer pays the premiums for a group disability income plan and deducts them as a business expense, how are the benefits taxed to the employee?

Why

If the employer paid (and deducted) the premiums and the employee was never taxed on them, the disability benefits are taxable to the employee when received; the tax simply shifts to the back end. Hook: employer-paid, employer-deducted DI premiums mean the employee is taxed on the benefits.

Question 5

In a group disability plan where the employer pays 60% of the premium and employees pay 40% with after-tax dollars, how are benefits generally taxed?

Why

When premiums are split, the benefits are taxed in proportion: the part attributable to the employer's deducted premium is taxable, and the part attributable to the employees' after-tax contributions is tax-free. Here that's about 60% taxable and 40% tax-free. Hook: split the premium, split the tax, in the same proportions.

Question 6

A key difference in employee taxation between employer-paid group health benefits and employer-paid group disability benefits is that:

Why

Employer-paid medical expense benefits reimburse care and stay tax-free, but employer-paid disability income benefits replace taxable wages, so they're taxable to the employee. The benefit type, not just the funding, matters here. Hook: employer health benefits stay tax-free, while employer-paid disability benefits are taxed because they replace a paycheck.

Question 7

A non-qualified HSA withdrawal made before age 65 is generally treated how?

Why

Pull HSA money out for non-medical reasons before age 65 and it's taxed as ordinary income plus a 20% penalty. After 65, non-qualified withdrawals are taxable but penalty-free (like an IRA). Hook: misuse the HSA early and it's income tax plus a steep 20% penalty.

Question 8

Contributions to a health flexible spending account (FSA) through salary reduction are generally treated how?

Why

FSA contributions come out of salary on a pre-tax basis, lowering the employee's taxable income, in exchange for the use-it-or-lose-it restriction on unused funds. Hook: FSA money goes in pre-tax, shrinking your taxable pay.

Question 9

A self-employed person may generally deduct their health insurance premiums how?

Why

The self-employed health insurance deduction lets self-employed individuals deduct premiums for medical, dental, and qualified LTC coverage above the line, without having to itemize, subject to certain limits. Hook: the self-employed get a special above-the-line write-off for their health premiums.

Question 10

Benefits received from a tax-qualified long-term care policy are generally treated how?

Why

Benefits from a tax-qualified LTC policy are generally received income-tax-free, up to a stated per diem limit set by law. Amounts above that limit may be taxable unless they reflect actual incurred expenses. Hook: qualified LTC benefits come tax-free, within a daily cap.

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