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Free Delaware Life Insurance & Annuities Practice Questions

Real questions in the style of the Delaware Life Insurance & Annuities licensing exam, pulled straight from the TESTivity course, each with a plain-English explanation. Start with the Delaware-specific rules below, then work the rest, and unlock the full simulator when you're ready to drill.

Questions on exam90
Passing score70%
Test providerPearson VUE
Time limitNot published
Pass rate57%

That's right — 43% of test-takers do not pass the Delaware Life Insurance & Annuities exam on their first attempt. Make sure you're part of the 57% who do.

First-time pass rate: 57% · Source: NAIC, 2024 (most recent available statistics)

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1 Insurance Basics & Foundational Concepts

Question 1

Which type of risk is the only kind that insurance is designed to cover?

Why

Insurance only deals with pure risk: situations where there's a chance of loss or no loss, but no chance of gain (like your house burning down). Speculative risk involves a chance of loss, no loss, OR gain. That's gambling and investing, and insurers won't touch it. If there's an upside, it's not insurable.

Question 2

Which of the following is the best example of a moral hazard?

Why

Moral hazard equals dishonesty. It's the risk that someone deliberately causes or exaggerates a loss to profit, like torching a failing business for the payout. Don't mix it up with morale hazard (carelessness, choice B) or physical hazard (the actual physical conditions in A and D).

Question 3

An insured who becomes careless about safety simply because they know they have insurance is displaying a:

Why

Morale hazard is the 'eh, I'm covered' attitude: indifference or carelessness that creeps in because insurance exists. It's not dishonesty (that's moral hazard) and it's not a physical condition (physical hazard). Trick to remember: moralE hazard is about a person's lazy attitudE.

Question 4

Cans of gasoline stored in a residential garage are an example of a:

Why

A physical hazard is a tangible condition that increases the likelihood or severity of a loss: gasoline in the garage, a slippery floor, frayed wiring. You can see or touch it. If it's an attitude problem it's morale; if it's dishonesty it's moral; if it's a physical thing sitting there raising the odds, it's physical.

Question 5

The primary purpose of reinsurance is to:

Why

Reinsurance is insurance for insurance companies. The original insurer (the ceding company) hands off part of its risk to a reinsurer so one giant loss doesn't sink it. Individuals never deal with reinsurers directly; it all happens behind the scenes between carriers.

Question 6

For the law of large numbers to work effectively, the exposures in a group should be:

Why

The law of large numbers needs lots of similar exposures to make predictions reliable. A big pool of comparable homes lets the insurer forecast losses; a handful of wildly different ones doesn't. And concentrating them all in one spot is actually bad: one hurricane could wipe out the whole pool at once.

Question 7

Policyholder dividends paid by a mutual insurer are:

Why

A mutual insurer is owned by its policyholders, so a 'dividend' is really a return of overpaid premium, which is why it's generally not taxable. And it's never guaranteed; it depends on the company's results. Stock dividends, by contrast, go to stockholders and are taxable.

Question 8

An agent who collects premiums on behalf of an insurer holds those funds in a:

Why

Premiums an agent collects belong to the insurer, not the agent, so the agent holds them in a fiduciary capacity, a position of financial trust. Mixing that money with personal funds (commingling) is a big no-no and a fast way to lose a license.

Question 9

An insurance contract is described as 'aleatory' because:

Why

Aleatory means the exchange of value can be lopsided and depends on chance. You might pay $600 in premium and collect $200,000 on a claim, or pay for years and never file one. That built-in inequality, hinging on whether a loss happens, is what makes the contract aleatory.

Question 10

Which of the following is NOT one of the four essential elements of a valid contract?

Why

The four elements are agreement (offer and acceptance), consideration, competent parties, and legal purpose. A notarized signature isn't on the list, so it's the odd one out. Consideration, by the way, is what each side brings to the table: the insured's premium and the insurer's promise to pay.

2 Life Insurance Basics

Question 1

A business purchases life insurance on its most valuable employee to protect against the financial loss of that person's death. This is known as:

Why

Key person (or key employee) insurance protects the business itself against losing someone whose death would really hurt the bottom line. The business owns the policy, pays the premiums, and is the beneficiary. If the key person dies, the company gets funds to cover the disruption and find a replacement.

Question 2

Which of the following is a common personal use of life insurance?

Why

On the personal side, life insurance commonly covers final expenses, replaces lost income for a family, pays off a mortgage, and provides liquidity so heirs can cover estate taxes without selling assets in a hurry. Insuring equipment or buildings is property insurance, not life.

Question 3

Under the needs approach, which of the following would be classified as an immediate cash need at death?

Why

Immediate (or cash) needs are the bills that hit right away: funeral and burial costs, final medical expenses, and outstanding debts. Ongoing income for survivors and future college costs are different buckets, classified as income needs and future needs rather than immediate cash needs.

Question 4

When calculating life insurance needs, an agent should subtract which of the following from the total need?

Why

You don't insure what's already covered. After totaling the family's needs, subtract the resources they already have: savings, investments, existing life insurance, Social Security survivor benefits. What's left is the true coverage gap the new policy should fill.

Question 5

Which factor would tend to increase a life insurance premium?

Why

Higher mortality means more expected claims, so it drives premium up. Higher assumed interest does the opposite, lowering premium because the insurer expects to earn more on your money. Lower expenses and a younger insured both push premium down. Mortality up equals premium up.

Question 6

The 'loading' added to a net premium to arrive at the gross premium covers the insurer's:

Why

Net premium covers mortality and interest. Loading is the extra piled on top for the insurer's expenses, commissions, overhead, and margin, so net premium plus loading equals the gross premium you actually pay. Loading equals the cost of doing business.

Question 7

An applicant who presents a greater-than-average likelihood of loss but is still insurable would most likely be classified as:

Why

The main risk buckets run preferred (better than average, lowest premium), standard (average), substandard or 'rated' (higher risk, higher premium), and declined (uninsurable). A higher-than-average but still insurable applicant lands in substandard, where they're charged extra to reflect the added risk.

Question 8

The Medical Information Bureau (MIB) assists insurers primarily by:

Why

The MIB is a shared database where member insurers post coded information about applicants' health-related findings. If someone fails to disclose a condition on a new application, the MIB can flag the discrepancy. It's a fraud-and-omission check, not a claims payer or rate setter.

Question 9

An insurer wants detailed information about an applicant's existing medical condition from the doctor who treated it. The insurer would request a(n):

Why

An attending physician's statement (APS) comes from the doctor who actually treated the applicant, used when the application or exam flags something needing more detail. An inspection report covers lifestyle and finances; an MVR covers driving. For specific medical history, it's the APS.

Question 10

Under the Fair Credit Reporting Act, if an insurer uses a consumer report to decline or rate an applicant, the insurer must:

Why

The Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA) protects consumers' privacy. If information from a consumer report leads to an adverse decision (declining or rating up), the insurer must tell the applicant and identify the reporting agency, so the applicant can check and dispute it. Transparency is the whole point.

3 Life Insurance Policies

Question 1

The conversion privilege in a term life policy allows the insured to:

Why

Convertible term lets you swap your term policy for a permanent one (like whole life) without a new medical exam, even if your health has tanked. The new premium is based on your age at conversion. It's a built-in escape hatch from 'temporary' to 'permanent' coverage.

Question 2

Under a level term policy, which of the following remains constant during the term?

Why

Level term keeps both the death benefit and the premium flat for the whole term, the most common and predictable flavor. Contrast that with decreasing term (benefit drops, premium level) and increasing term (benefit rises). 'Level' means nothing moves while the term runs.

Question 3

A traditional whole life policy is designed to 'endow' (cash value equals the face amount) at approximately age:

Why

Endowment is the point where the cash value catches up to the face amount and the policy 'matures.' On older whole life policies that's age 100; newer ones push it to 121. If the insured lives that long, the insurer pays out the face amount as a maturity benefit.

Question 4

In a whole life policy, which of the following is guaranteed?

Why

Whole life's selling point is guarantees: the premium won't change, the death benefit is locked, and the cash value follows a guaranteed schedule. Dividends (on participating policies) are never guaranteed, they depend on the insurer's results. Guarantees yes; dividends maybe.

Question 5

Ordinary (straight) whole life insurance requires premium payments:

Why

Ordinary, straight, or continuous-premium whole life spreads premiums across the insured's entire life, you pay until death or maturity. It has the lowest premium of the whole life family because payments are stretched out the longest. Limited-pay and single-premium just compress that schedule.

Question 6

Universal life is often described as 'unbundled' because the policyowner can see:

Why

Unbundled means transparent: a UL statement breaks out the cost of insurance (mortality), the expense charges, and the interest credited to cash value, all itemized. Whole life bundles these into one premium you never see split apart. UL shows you the moving parts.

Question 7

To sell variable life insurance, a producer must hold:

Why

Because variable products are regulated as securities, selling them takes a dual qualification: a state life insurance license plus a FINRA securities registration. A plain life license alone isn't enough. The investment component is what triggers the securities rules.

Question 8

The cash value of a variable life policy is held in the insurer's:

Why

Variable products hold cash value in a separate account, segregated from the insurer's general account and invested in subaccounts the owner picks. The general account (backing whole life and fixed UL) is where the insurer guarantees a return; the separate account passes market performance straight through to the policyowner.

Question 9

Variable universal life (VUL) combines the flexible premiums of universal life with:

Why

VUL is the mashup: UL's flexible premiums and adjustable death benefit, plus variable life's investment choice, where the owner directs cash value into subaccounts and bears the market risk. Maximum flexibility and maximum exposure. It's also a security, so it needs the dual license.

Question 10

The document given to an individual covered under a group life plan, summarizing their coverage, is called a:

Why

The employer holds the master policy; each covered member gets a certificate of insurance, a summary of their coverage, benefits, and conversion rights under the group plan. It's proof you're covered, even though you don't hold the actual contract.

4 Life Insurance Provisions, Options & Riders

Question 1

Two and a half years after a policy was issued, the insurer discovers the insured made a material misrepresentation on the application. Absent fraud, what can the insurer do?

Why

The incontestability clause says that once a policy has been in force for two years during the insured's lifetime, the company can no longer contest it over misstatements on the application. The point is to protect beneficiaries from a company digging up a minor error years later to dodge a claim. After two years the application is essentially locked, so honest mistakes can't sink the payout. (Outright fraud and nonpayment of premium are the usual exceptions.)

Question 2

After an insured dies, the insurer learns the insured understated their age on the application. How is the claim handled?

Why

The misstatement of age (or sex) provision is a fix-it clause, not a gotcha. Because premium is based on age, the company simply recalculates and pays the death benefit the premiums actually paid would have purchased at the true age. Understate your age and the payout shrinks a bit, but the policy isn't canceled. It adjusts the benefit; it doesn't kill the claim.

Question 3

The automatic premium loan provision is designed to do what?

Why

The automatic premium loan (APL) is a safety net: if a premium goes unpaid past the grace period, the company automatically borrows it from your cash value so the policy doesn't lapse. It quietly keeps coverage alive, though each rescue is a loan that chips away at cash value and, if left unpaid, the death benefit. Picture it as the policy paying its own premium out of the cash value you've built.

Question 4

A policyowner transfers only partial rights in their policy to a bank as security for a loan. This is an example of what?

Why

A collateral assignment is a partial, temporary transfer: you pledge the policy (usually its death benefit up to the loan amount) as collateral, and once the debt is paid the rights revert to you. Compare that to an absolute assignment, which is a complete, permanent transfer of ownership. Easy hook: collateral assignment is literally as collateral for a loan (partial), while absolute means absolutely everything (full).

Question 5

A policy names three children equally, per stirpes. One child predeceases the insured, leaving two children of their own. At the insured's death, how are proceeds distributed?

Why

Per stirpes means by branch: if a named beneficiary dies first, their share flows down to their own descendants rather than being reabsorbed by the surviving beneficiaries. So the late child's one-third doesn't vanish or get split among the siblings; it goes to that child's kids. Contrast per capita (by head), where only surviving named beneficiaries share. Hook: stirpes sounds like stem or branch, and the share follows the family branch down.

Question 6

Why is naming a minor as the direct beneficiary of a life insurance policy generally problematic?

Why

A minor can absolutely be named, but an insurer won't hand a large check to a child who can't legally give a valid receipt. Without planning, a court has to appoint a guardian to manage the money, which is slow, costly, and out of the family's control. That's why people set up a trust or custodial arrangement, or name a trusted adult to manage it. Minors can inherit; they just can't legally sign for it, so arrange a manager in advance.

Question 7

A policyowner chooses the cash surrender nonforfeiture option. What happens to the coverage?

Why

Cash surrender is the most straightforward option: you take the cash value in hand and the policy ends, with no more coverage. It's the right move when you no longer need the insurance and want the money, but be aware that any gain above total premiums paid can be taxable. Surrender means exactly what it sounds like, you give up the policy entirely in exchange for the cash.

Question 8

An owner directs dividends to purchase small amounts of additional permanent coverage. This dividend option is called what?

Why

The paid-up additions option uses each dividend as a single premium to buy a little extra paid-up whole life. It's a popular pick because the additions raise both the death benefit and the cash value, and each one immediately has its own cash value too. Picture each dividend buying a tiny mini paid-up policy that bolts onto the main one.

Question 9

Under the interest-only settlement option, what does the beneficiary receive?

Why

With the interest-only option, the insurer keeps the death benefit (the principal) and pays the beneficiary just the interest it earns, leaving the full amount intact for later. It's useful when a beneficiary wants some income now but isn't ready to touch the lump sum. The principal stays parked; only the interest gets paid out.

Question 10

An accidental death benefit (double indemnity) rider pays an additional amount only when the insured's death results from what?

Why

The accidental death benefit rider, often called double indemnity, pays extra (frequently twice the face amount) only when death is caused by an accident, and usually only if death occurs within a set period (commonly 90 days) of that accident and before a stated age. Death from illness or natural causes pays the base amount only. It's strictly an accident rider, so natural causes don't trigger the bonus.

5 Annuities

Question 1

Annuitization refers to what?

Why

Annuitization is the switch from saving to spending: the owner converts the accumulated value into a guaranteed income stream and chooses a payout option that sets how long, and to whom, payments run. Once you annuitize, you've generally traded the lump sum for the income. Hook: annuitize means turn the pile of money into a paycheck.

Question 2

A flexible premium deferred annuity allows the owner to do what?

Why

A flexible premium annuity lets you fund it on your own schedule, more this year, less or nothing next, rather than with one fixed lump sum. By definition these are deferred, because you can't keep adding money to a contract that's already paying out. Hook: flexible premium equals flexible deposits, and it's always a deferred contract.

Question 3

A fixed annuity guarantees the owner what?

Why

A fixed annuity promises a guaranteed minimum interest rate during accumulation and a fixed, predictable income at payout. The insurer holds these funds in its general account and shoulders the investment risk. Hook: fixed means fixed, guaranteed numbers, prioritizing safety and predictability over upside.

Question 4

In a fixed annuity, who bears the investment risk?

Why

Because the insurer guarantees both the interest rate and the payout amount in a fixed annuity, the insurer, not the owner, carries the investment risk. If the company's general-account investments underperform, it still must honor the guarantee. Hook: the guarantees live with the insurer, so the risk does too.

Question 5

To sell variable annuities, a producer must generally hold what?

Why

Because a variable annuity is both an insurance product and a security, selling it requires dual qualification: a life insurance license from the state plus a securities registration through FINRA, and the prospect must receive a prospectus. Hook: it's part insurance, part investment, so you need both sets of credentials.

Question 6

An equity-indexed (fixed indexed) annuity credits interest based on what?

Why

An indexed annuity ties its interest to a market index such as the S&P 500, so it can earn more than a plain fixed annuity in good years, while a guaranteed minimum (a floor) keeps a bad index year from crediting a negative return. Hook: indexed means index-linked upside with a guaranteed floor underneath.

Question 7

Earnings inside a nonqualified annuity during the accumulation phase are treated how for tax purposes?

Why

One of the annuity's main draws is tax deferral: interest and gains compound untaxed during accumulation, and you owe tax only when money comes out. Deferring the tax lets more dollars stay invested and compound. Hook: nothing is taxed until you take it out, which is the whole appeal of the accumulation phase.

Question 8

The exclusion ratio is used to determine what?

Why

Once an annuity is paying out, each payment is part return of your own after-tax contributions (the cost basis) and part earnings. The exclusion ratio is the fraction of each payment that is the tax-free return of basis; the rest is taxable. Hook: the exclusion ratio is what you get to exclude from tax, because you already paid tax on that money going in.

Question 9

For a partial withdrawal from a nonqualified deferred annuity, the IRS generally treats the money coming out as what?

Why

Nonqualified annuity withdrawals follow LIFO, last in first out, so the IRS treats the taxable earnings as coming out before your original principal. That means an early withdrawal is taxed as ordinary income until all the gain is used up. Hook: gains come out first and get taxed first, your own basis comes out last.

Question 10

A structured settlement annuity is commonly used to do what?

Why

A structured settlement annuity takes a lump-sum legal award, say from an injury claim, and turns it into a stream of guaranteed payments, giving the recipient stable long-term income instead of a single check that could be spent too quickly. Hook: it structures a settlement into scheduled payments rather than one lump sum.

6 Federal Tax Considerations — Life, Annuities & Qualified Plans

Question 1

A beneficiary receives a $250,000 life insurance death benefit as a lump sum. How is it generally treated for federal income tax?

Why

A life insurance death benefit paid as a lump sum is generally received free of federal income tax, no matter the size. That income-tax-free payout is one of the biggest reasons life insurance is such a powerful planning tool. Hook: the lump-sum death benefit lands in the beneficiary's hands income-tax-free.

Question 2

A life insurance death benefit may be included in the insured's taxable estate when which of the following is true?

Why

Although the death benefit is income-tax-free, it can still be pulled into the insured's taxable estate if the insured kept incidents of ownership, such as the right to change the beneficiary, take a loan, or surrender the policy. Removing those controls (often through an irrevocable life insurance trust) is how planners keep proceeds out of the taxable estate. Hook: income-tax-free is not the same as estate-tax-free, and control is what drags it into the estate.

Question 3

How is the growth of cash value inside a permanent life insurance policy generally treated while the policy stays in force?

Why

The cash value in a permanent policy grows tax-deferred, meaning there's no annual tax on the inside buildup as long as the policy stays in force. This is one of the quiet advantages of permanent insurance over a fully taxable account. Hook: nothing is taxed on the growth while the policy is alive and intact.

Question 4

Are premiums on a personally owned life insurance policy generally deductible on the owner's federal income tax return?

Why

Premiums on personal life insurance are paid with after-tax dollars and are not deductible. The trade-off for that is the income-tax-free death benefit on the back end. Hook: no deduction going in, but a tax-free benefit coming out; the IRS won't let you have it both ways.

Question 5

In a Section 162 executive bonus plan, how are the premium payments treated?

Why

In a Section 162 bonus plan, the employer pays or reimburses the premium on a policy the executive personally owns and treats it as deductible compensation, while the executive reports that amount as taxable income, just like any bonus. The executive owns the policy and its cash value. Hook: it's simply a taxable bonus used to buy insurance, deductible to the employer, taxable to the executive.

Question 6

A buy-sell agreement funded with life insurance is designed primarily to do what?

Why

A buy-sell agreement funded with life insurance guarantees that, when an owner dies, cash is available to buy out their share, so the surviving owners keep control and the deceased owner's family receives fair value in cash. Hook: it funds the buyout of a departed owner's interest so the business transitions cleanly.

Question 7

During the accumulation phase of a nonqualified annuity, the earnings are what?

Why

Like the cash value in life insurance, annuity earnings grow tax-deferred during accumulation; you pay tax only when you take money out. Hook: no tax until you tap it, which is the core appeal of annuity accumulation.

Question 8

Compared with a nonqualified plan, a qualified retirement plan must do what?

Why

A qualified plan must satisfy IRS and ERISA standards, including nondiscrimination rules that prevent it from favoring owners and highly paid employees, in exchange for its tax breaks. A nonqualified plan skips those rules but also skips the upfront tax advantages and can favor select employees. Hook: qualified plans earn tax breaks by following the rules; nonqualified plans trade the breaks for flexibility.

Question 9

A qualified distribution from a Roth IRA is treated how for federal income tax?

Why

A Roth IRA flips the deal: you contribute after-tax dollars (no deduction), but a qualified distribution, generally after age 59 1/2 and a five-year holding period, comes out completely tax-free, earnings included. Hook: Roth means no deduction now but tax-free qualified withdrawals later, the mirror image of a traditional IRA.

Question 10

A 403(b) plan (tax-sheltered annuity) is generally available to employees of what kind of organization?

Why

A 403(b), or tax-sheltered annuity, is the qualified plan built for public school employees and certain 501(c)(3) nonprofits, working much like a 401(k) but for that sector. Hook: 403(b) is the schools-and-nonprofits version of a 401(k).

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