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Free Indiana Accident & Health Practice Questions

Real questions in the style of the Indiana Accident & Health licensing exam, pulled straight from the TESTivity course, each with a plain-English explanation. Start with the Indiana-specific rules below, then work the rest, and unlock the full simulator when you're ready to drill.

Questions on exam95
Passing score70%
Test providerPearson VUE
Time limit2 hr
Pass rate58%

That's right — 42% of test-takers do not pass the Indiana Accident & Health exam on their first attempt. Make sure you're part of the 58% who do.

First-time pass rate: 58% · Source: NAIC, 2024 (most recent available statistics)

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1 Insurance Basics & Foundational Concepts

Question 1

An insured who becomes careless about safety simply because they know they have insurance is displaying a:

Why

Morale hazard is the 'eh, I'm covered' attitude: indifference or carelessness that creeps in because insurance exists. It's not dishonesty (that's moral hazard) and it's not a physical condition (physical hazard). Trick to remember: moralE hazard is about a person's lazy attitudE.

Question 2

Cans of gasoline stored in a residential garage are an example of a:

Why

A physical hazard is a tangible condition that increases the likelihood or severity of a loss: gasoline in the garage, a slippery floor, frayed wiring. You can see or touch it. If it's an attitude problem it's morale; if it's dishonesty it's moral; if it's a physical thing sitting there raising the odds, it's physical.

Question 3

The primary purpose of reinsurance is to:

Why

Reinsurance is insurance for insurance companies. The original insurer (the ceding company) hands off part of its risk to a reinsurer so one giant loss doesn't sink it. Individuals never deal with reinsurers directly; it all happens behind the scenes between carriers.

Question 4

In a reinsurance transaction, the insurer that transfers risk to the reinsurer is known as the:

Why

The company giving away (ceding) the risk is the ceding company; the company taking it on is the reinsurer. Easy hook: to 'cede' is to give up, so the one giving up the risk is the ceding company.

Question 5

A policy that pays dividends to its policyholders is referred to as a:

Why

Participating policies 'participate' in the insurer's profits by paying policy dividends, and are typically issued by mutual companies. Nonparticipating policies don't pay dividends and are typically issued by stock companies. The word 'participate' is your tell.

Question 6

An agent who represents only one insurance company and does not own the policy expirations is typically called a:

Why

A captive (or exclusive) agent represents a single insurer, and that insurer owns the book of business. An independent agent represents multiple companies and owns their own expirations (the renewal rights). The ownership-of-expirations detail is the classic distinguisher.

Question 7

The authority that the public reasonably believes an agent has, based on the insurer's actions, is called:

Why

Apparent authority is about appearances: what a reasonable customer believes the agent can do based on how the insurer let the agent act (business cards, signage, company applications). Express authority is spelled out in the contract; implied is what's needed to carry out the express. Apparent is the 'looks legit' bucket.

Question 8

The intentional failure to disclose a known material fact when applying for insurance is called:

Why

Concealment is staying silent about a material fact you know the insurer would want, and if it's intentional, it can void the policy. It's the sin-of-omission version of misrepresentation (which is an active false statement). Both turn on the fact being 'material,' meaning it would have affected the insurer's decision.

Question 9

The voluntary giving up of a known legal right is known as a:

Why

A waiver is voluntarily surrendering a known right, say, an insurer choosing not to enforce a policy condition. Estoppel is the follow-on: once you've waived something, you can be legally prevented (estopped) from later trying to enforce it. Waiver is the giving up; estoppel is being held to it.

Question 10

Which of the following is NOT one of the four essential elements of a valid contract?

Why

The four elements are agreement (offer and acceptance), consideration, competent parties, and legal purpose. A notarized signature isn't on the list, so it's the odd one out. Consideration, by the way, is what each side brings to the table: the insured's premium and the insurer's promise to pay.

2 Accident & Health Insurance Basics

Question 1

Accident and health insurance is designed to cover financial losses arising from which two perils?

Why

A&H insurance exists to handle the two ways your health can cost you money: accidents (sudden injuries) and sickness (illnesses and conditions). Whether the policy pays for medical bills or lost income, those are the two triggering perils. Hook: A&H equals the two perils right in the name, accident and sickness.

Question 2

Disability income insurance is designed primarily to do what?

Why

Disability income coverage doesn't pay medical bills; it replaces a paycheck. When illness or injury keeps you from working, it provides periodic income (usually a percentage of your earnings) so the bills at home still get paid. Hook: disability income protects the paycheck, not the medical bill.

Question 3

An accidental death and dismemberment (AD&D) policy pays benefits for which of the following?

Why

AD&D pays only for losses caused by accidents: a death benefit if an accident is fatal, and a scheduled benefit for accidental dismemberment, such as losing a hand, foot, or eyesight. Death or loss from illness isn't covered. Hook: AD&D is strictly accident-driven; both the death and the dismemberment must come from an accident.

Question 4

Under an AD&D policy, the capital sum refers to what?

Why

The principal sum is the full benefit, paid for accidental death or for severe losses like both hands or both eyes. The capital sum is a percentage of that principal sum, paid for the loss of a single member or sight in one eye. Hook: principal sum is the whole pie (death or two losses); capital sum is a slice (one loss).

Question 5

Which renewability classification gives the insured the least security?

Why

A cancelable policy lets the insurer terminate coverage at virtually any time with proper written notice (returning any unearned premium), making it the least secure arrangement for the insured. The other classifications all restrict when, or whether, the insurer can walk away. Hook: cancelable means the insurer can pull the plug almost anytime, so it's the weakest guarantee.

Question 6

A copayment under a health plan is best described as what?

Why

A copayment is a set flat fee, say $25 for an office visit or $15 for a prescription, that the insured pays at the point of service. Unlike coinsurance, it doesn't change with the size of the bill. Hook: a copay is a fixed dollar ticket price per service, not a percentage.

Question 7

A stop-loss (out-of-pocket maximum) provision does what for the insured?

Why

The stop-loss, or out-of-pocket maximum, protects the insured from runaway costs: once their deductible and coinsurance add up to the cap, the insurer pays 100% of covered charges for the rest of the period. Hook: stop-loss stops the bleeding, since after the cap the insured's share drops to zero.

Question 8

A covered medical bill is $5,000. The policy has a $500 deductible and 80/20 coinsurance, and the out-of-pocket maximum has not yet been reached. How much does the insured pay?

Why

First the insured pays the $500 deductible. That leaves $4,500, which the 80/20 coinsurance splits, so the insured pays 20% of $4,500, or $900. Add the deductible and the coinsurance share: $500 + $900 = $1,400, while the insurer pays the remaining $3,600. Hook: deductible first, then your coinsurance percentage of what's left, so $500 plus $900 equals $1,400.

Question 9

When an insurer needs detailed medical history about a specific condition disclosed on an application, it typically requests what?

Why

An attending physician's statement (APS) is a report the insurer obtains, with the applicant's authorization, from the doctor who treated a disclosed condition. It fills in clinical details the application alone can't provide. Hook: when underwriters need the medical specifics, they go to the treating doctor for an APS.

Question 10

An applicant classified as a substandard (rated) risk will typically experience what?

Why

A substandard, or rated, risk represents a greater-than-average likelihood of claims, so the insurer charges a higher premium (or adjusts the coverage) to offset it, rather than simply declining. Hook: substandard risk means a higher price tag, not an automatic no.

3 Individual A&H Policy Provisions

Question 1

After receiving notice of a claim, the insurer must furnish claim forms to the insured within how many days?

Why

The insurer has 15 days after notice of claim to send the claimant the forms used to file proof of loss. Hook: notice of claim starts a 15-day clock for the insurer to provide claim forms.

Question 2

If the insurer fails to furnish claim forms within the required time, what may the claimant do?

Why

If the insurer doesn't deliver claim forms on time, the claimant is allowed to submit proof of loss in their own words; any written statement of the nature and extent of the loss will satisfy the requirement. Hook: no forms from the insurer means you can describe the loss in any written form.

Question 3

Under the proof of loss provision, the insured must generally submit proof of loss within how many days of a loss?

Why

Proof of loss, the documentation supporting the claim, must be furnished within 90 days after the loss, or as soon as reasonably possible. It's a longer window than the 20-day notice because it requires more detail. Hook: 20 days to notify, 90 days to prove.

Question 4

The facility of payment clause within the payment of claims provision allows the insurer to do what?

Why

The facility of payment clause lets the insurer pay up to a stated amount to a relative or whoever appears equitably entitled, which is useful when there's no living beneficiary or the insured is deceased or incapacitated. It gives the insurer a practical way to settle small amounts without a court. Hook: facility of payment is the insurer's shortcut to pay someone fairly entitled when no beneficiary fits.

Question 5

Under the physical examination and autopsy provision, the insurer has the right to do what?

Why

While a claim is pending, the insurer may have the insured examined as often as reasonably necessary and, in the event of death, order an autopsy unless state law forbids it, with the insurer paying for these. Hook: during a claim the insurer can examine (or autopsy) at its own cost to verify the loss.

Question 6

Under the legal actions provision, what is the maximum time, generally, that an insured has to bring suit after proof of loss is required?

Why

The insured generally has up to 3 years (5 in some states) from the time proof of loss is required to file a lawsuit, after which the right to sue expires. Hook: at least 60 days before you can sue, no more than 3 years after, that's the legal-action window.

Question 7

Under the change of beneficiary provision, the policyowner may change the beneficiary at any time unless what is true?

Why

The owner keeps the right to change the beneficiary unless they've named an irrevocable beneficiary, in which case the beneficiary's written consent is required. Hook: revocable means change freely, irrevocable means you need the beneficiary's okay.

Question 8

Under the optional change of occupation provision, if an insured changes to a more hazardous occupation, the insurer may do what at the time of a claim?

Why

If the insured moves to riskier work and is later hurt, the insurer can pay reduced benefits, specifically the amount the premium already paid would have purchased at the rate for the more hazardous job. The policy isn't void; the benefit is simply scaled to the risk. Hook: a more hazardous job means benefits shrink to match what your premium buys at the higher-risk rate.

Question 9

Under the optional misstatement of age provision, if an insured's age was stated incorrectly, the insurer will do what at claim time?

Why

Because age affects the premium, a misstatement is corrected by adjusting the benefit rather than canceling coverage: the insurer pays what the premium actually paid would have bought at the true age. Hook: a wrong age just resizes the benefit to match what you really paid for.

Question 10

The optional illegal occupation provision allows the insurer to deny liability for a loss arising from what?

Why

This provision lets the insurer avoid paying for losses the insured suffers while committing or attempting a felony or from being engaged in an illegal occupation. Hook: get hurt while breaking the law in a serious way and the policy won't pay.

4 Disability Income & Related Insurance

Question 1

Which definition of total disability is generally more favorable to the insured?

Why

Own occupation is the more favorable, and more expensive, definition, because it pays when you can't do your specific job regardless of whether you could earn a living elsewhere. Any occ, by contrast, sets a much higher bar to collect. Hook: own occ favors the insured, any occ favors the insurer.

Question 2

A residual disability benefit pays an amount based on what?

Why

Residual disability coverage pays a partial benefit scaled to your loss of income, so if a disability cuts your earnings by 40%, you collect roughly 40% of the total disability benefit. It bridges the gap when you can work but not at full capacity. Hook: residual benefits track your percentage of lost income.

Question 3

Under a recurrent disability provision, if an insured returns to work and then becomes disabled again from the same cause within the stated period, the second disability is treated how?

Why

The recurrent disability provision says that a relapse from the same cause within a set time (often six months) counts as a continuation of the prior claim, so the insured doesn't have to satisfy a brand-new elimination period. A later, unrelated disability would start fresh. Hook: same cause, soon after, means it picks up where it left off, no new waiting period.

Question 4

How does choosing a longer elimination period generally affect the premium of a disability income policy?

Why

A longer elimination period means the insurer pays out less often and later, so it charges a lower premium. The insured accepts more of the short-term risk in exchange for a cheaper policy. Hook: wait longer to collect, pay less to own, so a longer elimination period means a lower premium.

Question 5

The benefit period in a disability income policy refers to what?

Why

The benefit period is the longest span the policy will keep paying for a single disability, such as 2 years, 5 years, or to age 65. A longer benefit period raises the premium. Hook: the benefit period is how long the checks can keep coming.

Question 6

Why do disability income policies generally limit benefits to a percentage of the insured's income rather than 100%?

Why

Insurers cap benefits below full income (and below what you'd net after taxes, since the benefits are often tax-free) so the insured always has a financial reason to recover and return to work. Paying 100% could encourage staying disabled, known as malingering. Hook: benefits stop short of full pay so working still beats collecting.

Question 7

An insured earns $5,000 per month and owns a disability income policy that pays a 60% benefit. Ignoring any other coverage, what is the monthly disability benefit?

Why

The benefit is simply 60% of monthly earned income: 0.60 times $5,000 equals $3,000 per month. The remaining 40% stays uninsured on purpose, preserving the incentive to return to work. Hook: 60% of $5,000 is $3,000, the monthly check.

Question 8

A rehabilitation benefit in a disability income policy is generally designed to do what?

Why

The rehabilitation benefit funds vocational training, education, or similar services that help a disabled insured re-enter the workforce, often while disability benefits continue during the program. It serves both the insured and the insurer, who would rather see a return to work. Hook: it pays to retrain you back into a job.

Question 9

Compared with group long-term disability (LTD), group short-term disability (STD) coverage generally does what?

Why

Short-term disability typically replaces a larger share of income (sometimes 60% to 70%) but only for weeks or months, while long-term disability pays a somewhat lower percentage for years or to retirement age. STD covers the early gap; LTD takes over for prolonged disabilities. Hook: STD pays more for a short time, LTD pays steadily for the long haul.

Question 10

Workers' compensation disability benefits cover injuries and illnesses that are what?

Why

Workers' compensation is an occupational-only program: it pays for work-related injuries and illnesses regardless of fault, but covers nothing that happens off the job. That's why private and group DI often coordinate around it. Hook: workers' comp covers on-the-job harm only.

5 Medical Plans

Question 1

Compared with basic medical expense coverage, major medical insurance is generally characterized by what?

Why

Major medical is built for big claims: it features high (or no) maximum benefits, a deductible, and coinsurance, in exchange for covering a broad range of expenses. The cost sharing is the trade-off for that wide, deep protection. Hook: major medical goes big and broad, with a deductible and coinsurance along the way.

Question 2

A comprehensive major medical plan is best described as what?

Why

Comprehensive major medical merges basic and major medical into one policy, so a single deductible and coinsurance structure covers everything from routine care up through catastrophic claims. Hook: comprehensive equals basic plus major rolled into one plan with one deductible.

Question 3

A health maintenance organization (HMO) is generally financed through what?

Why

An HMO operates on a prepaid basis: members pay a fixed periodic amount and receive comprehensive services from the HMO's providers, who are often paid by capitation (a set fee per member). It shifts the focus from billing per service to managing care within a fixed budget. Hook: an HMO is prepaid care, a flat fee buys a defined set of services.

Question 4

With a few exceptions such as emergencies, an HMO generally covers services only when they are provided by whom?

Why

HMOs require members to use the plan's network of providers (outside of true emergencies), which is how they control cost and coordinate care. Go outside the network and the service generally isn't covered. Hook: HMO equals in-network only, except for emergencies.

Question 5

An independent practice association (IPA) model HMO contracts with whom to provide care?

Why

In the IPA model, the HMO contracts with independent doctors (or physician groups) who continue to run their own practices and see non-HMO patients too, rather than employing them directly as in a staff model. Hook: IPA doctors keep their own practices and just contract with the HMO.

Question 6

Compared with a traditional HMO, a PPO generally does what regarding specialist access?

Why

PPOs typically don't use a gatekeeper, so members can go straight to a specialist without first getting a referral from a primary care physician. It's more convenient but usually costs more in premium than an HMO. Hook: no gatekeeper in a PPO, you can self-refer to specialists.

Question 7

Managed care plans such as HMOs and PPOs primarily aim to do what?

Why

The whole point of managed care is to rein in costs and coordinate care, using networks, gatekeepers, and utilization review, while still aiming to maintain quality. It's a deliberate contrast to open-ended fee-for-service. Hook: managed care manages both the dollars and the care.

Question 8

A health savings account (HSA) may generally be established only by someone who is enrolled in what?

Why

HSAs are tied to HDHPs by law: you must be covered by a qualified high deductible health plan (and have no disqualifying coverage) to contribute. The high deductible is what the HSA is meant to help fund. Hook: no HDHP, no HSA, they're a required pair.

Question 9

Which of the following is true of a health savings account (HSA)?

Why

An HSA belongs to the individual, so it follows them from job to job, the balance rolls over year to year, and it offers strong tax treatment: deductible (or pre-tax) contributions, tax-free growth, and tax-free withdrawals for qualified medical expenses. Hook: an HSA is yours to keep, rolls over, and is tax-favored coming and going.

Question 10

A health reimbursement arrangement (HRA) is funded by whom?

Why

An HRA is funded solely by the employer, which sets aside money to reimburse employees for qualified medical expenses. Because the employer owns it, the rules on carryover and portability are set by the employer. Hook: the employer funds and owns the HRA.

6 Group Health Insurance

Question 1

In a group health plan, the individual covered members receive what document evidencing their coverage?

Why

The insurer issues one master contract to the group sponsor, and each covered member gets a certificate of coverage summarizing their benefits and rights. The members don't hold individual policies. Hook: the sponsor gets the master contract, the members get certificates.

Question 2

Federal COBRA continuation rights generally apply to employers with at least how many employees?

Why

COBRA applies to group health plans of employers with 20 or more employees. Smaller employers may be subject to state mini-COBRA laws instead. Hook: 20 employees is the federal COBRA threshold.

Question 3

Under COBRA, an employee who is terminated for which reason is generally NOT entitled to continuation coverage?

Why

Termination for gross misconduct is the key exception; it does not trigger COBRA rights. Ordinary terminations, layoffs, and resignations do qualify. Hook: gross misconduct is the one firing that forfeits COBRA.

Question 4

The conversion privilege in a group health plan generally allows a departing employee to do what?

Why

The conversion privilege lets an employee leaving the group switch to an individual policy without proving insurability, though usually at individual (higher) rates and within a limited application window. It protects coverage for someone who has become uninsurable. Hook: conversion turns group coverage into an individual policy with no health questions, but at individual prices.

Question 5

To exercise the group conversion privilege, the departing insured generally must apply within what timeframe after group coverage ends?

Why

Conversion must be requested within a short window after group coverage ends, commonly 31 days. Miss that window and the right to convert without evidence of insurability is lost. Hook: act fast, the conversion window is short, often about 31 days.

Question 6

Under HIPAA, a group health plan generally may not do what?

Why

HIPAA's nondiscrimination rule prohibits a group plan from denying an eligible individual coverage, or charging them more, because of their health status or medical history. Everyone in the eligible group must be treated alike. Hook: HIPAA says a group plan can't single you out for being sick.

Question 7

Under HIPAA, prior health coverage that can reduce a new plan's pre-existing condition exclusion period is known as what?

Why

Creditable coverage is prior, generally continuous, health coverage that gets credited against any pre-existing condition waiting period a new plan might impose, shortening or eliminating it. Hook: creditable coverage is the prior coverage you get credit for when you switch plans.

Question 8

When two group plans coordinate benefits on a $1,000 covered expense, what is the maximum the two plans together will pay?

Why

Coordination of benefits caps the combined payment at 100% of the actual covered expense, here $1,000, no matter how generous each plan is on its own. The primary pays first and the secondary covers the remainder up to that ceiling. Hook: two plans still pay only the real cost, never more than 100%.

Question 9

A multiple employer trust (MET) or multiple employer welfare arrangement (MEWA) is used to do what?

Why

METs and MEWAs let small employers pool together to obtain group coverage with the buying power and stability of a larger group, something they couldn't easily get alone. Hook: small employers team up through a MET or MEWA to act like one big group.

Question 10

Self-funded employer health plans are primarily governed by which federal law rather than by state insurance regulation?

Why

Self-funded employer plans fall largely under ERISA, a federal law, which is one reason employers choose self-funding: it exempts them from many state insurance mandates. Hook: self-funded plans answer mainly to ERISA at the federal level.

7 Dental & Vision Insurance

Question 1

A scheduled (table of allowances) dental plan pays benefits how?

Why

A scheduled dental plan lists a set dollar benefit for each covered procedure, regardless of what the dentist actually charges. If the bill exceeds the schedule amount, the patient pays the difference. Hook: scheduled dental is a fixed price list, one dollar figure per procedure.

Question 2

Major dental services such as crowns, bridges, and dentures are most commonly covered at approximately what coinsurance level, and why lower than preventive care?

Why

Major services are usually covered at about 50%, the lowest tier, because they are expensive, so the plan shifts more of the cost to the patient through higher coinsurance. The three-tier 100/80/50 pattern is the classic dental structure. Hook: the bigger and pricier the work, the smaller the share the plan pays, with major care around 50%.

Question 3

Orthodontia coverage in a dental plan is typically characterized by what?

Why

Orthodontia is usually a distinct, optional benefit with its own lifetime maximum (not an annual one) and a lower coinsurance percentage, and it's frequently limited to dependent children. Hook: ortho stands apart, with its own lifetime cap, lower coverage, and often kids only.

Question 4

In a typical dental plan, the deductible most often applies to which services?

Why

To encourage preventive care, plans commonly waive the deductible on cleanings and exams while applying it to basic and major services. That keeps the barrier off the care the plan most wants people to use. Hook: the deductible usually skips preventive care and lands on basic and major work.

Question 5

Under a least expensive alternative treatment (alternate benefit) provision, how does the plan pay when more than one acceptable treatment exists?

Why

The alternate benefit (LEAT) provision lets the plan calculate its payment based on the cheapest treatment that would adequately do the job. If the patient chooses a pricier option, they pay the difference. Hook: the plan pays for the cheapest adequate fix; upgrades are on the patient.

Question 6

Group dental coverage is most commonly offered how, relative to the medical plan?

Why

Dental is usually written as its own standalone plan rather than folded into major medical, with its own premium, deductible, maximums, and benefit tiers. Employers often offer it as a separate elective benefit. Hook: dental typically stands on its own, separate from the medical plan.

Question 7

Vision plans most commonly pay for materials like frames using what mechanism?

Why

Vision plans typically grant a fixed allowance toward frames or contacts (for example, an allowance applied at purchase), and the member pays anything above that allowance. Exams may carry a small copay. Hook: vision gives you an allowance to spend, and you cover the overage.

Question 8

A vision plan that covers an eye exam once every 12 months and new frames once every 24 months is using what feature?

Why

Frequency limitations cap how often each benefit can be used, such as one exam per year and frames every other year, controlling cost while still meeting routine needs. Hook: frequency limits set how often you can use each vision benefit.

Question 9

Like dental coverage, routine vision coverage is most often offered how?

Why

Routine vision, like dental, is usually a standalone elective benefit with its own premium and rules, rather than being built into major medical. Hook: vision, like dental, typically stands alone as its own benefit.

Question 10

A vision (or dental) discount plan differs from insurance in that it does what?

Why

A discount plan isn't insurance: instead of paying benefits, it gives members access to providers who charge negotiated, reduced fees, and the member pays those lower prices directly. There's no claim or reimbursement. Hook: a discount plan buys you cheaper prices, not insurance benefits.

8 Senior & Special Needs Health Insurance

Question 1

Medicare eligibility is generally available to U.S. citizens and qualified residents beginning at what age?

Why

Medicare's standard eligibility age is 65, the same age tied to its origins alongside Social Security. Certain younger people qualify too, such as those who have received Social Security disability for the required period. Hook: 65 is the magic Medicare age.

Question 2

For most people already receiving Social Security, enrollment in Medicare Part A at age 65 is generally what?

Why

People already drawing Social Security are usually enrolled in Part A automatically at 65, since Part A is premium-free for those with enough work credits. Part B enrollment may require action because it carries a premium. Hook: Part A usually arrives automatically when you're already on Social Security.

Question 3

Medicare Part B is best described as what?

Why

Part B is optional; those who want it pay a monthly premium (often deducted from Social Security). Because it's voluntary and carries a premium, beneficiaries must usually take action to enroll, and late enrollment can bring a penalty. Hook: Part B is the part you choose and pay a monthly premium for.

Question 4

A person who delays enrolling in Medicare Part B without qualifying coverage may face what?

Why

Skipping Part B when first eligible, without other qualifying coverage, can trigger a lifelong premium surcharge for late enrollment. It's designed to encourage timely sign-up. Hook: wait too long on Part B and you pay a permanent penalty.

Question 5

Medicare Part D provides coverage for what?

Why

Part D is the prescription drug benefit, delivered through private drug plans (either standalone or built into a Medicare Advantage plan). It helps cover the cost of outpatient medications. Hook: Part D is for drugs, the prescription piece of Medicare.

Question 6

Medicare Supplement policies are standardized, meaning what?

Why

Medigap plans are standardized into lettered plans (Plan A, Plan G, Plan N, and so on); a given lettered plan offers identical core benefits no matter which insurer sells it, so consumers can compare on price and service. Hook: same letter equals same benefits, whoever sells it.

Question 7

A Medicare Supplement policy generally must include a free look period of how long?

Why

Medigap policies carry a 30-day free look, letting the buyer return the policy for a full refund if they change their mind. It's longer than the typical individual-policy free look. Hook: Medigap gives a generous 30-day free look.

Question 8

Which of the following is true of Medicaid's role in long-term care?

Why

Because Medicare largely excludes long-term custodial care, Medicaid has become a major payer of nursing home and long-term care, but only after a person has spent down assets to qualify under its strict financial limits. Hook: Medicaid is the big long-term-care payer, once you've spent down to qualify.

Question 9

Long-term care insurance commonly covers care delivered in which range of settings?

Why

Modern LTC policies cover care across a spectrum of settings, skilled nursing facilities, assisted living, adult day care centers, and care provided in the insured's own home, reflecting how people actually receive long-term care. Hook: good LTC follows the care wherever it happens, from a nursing home to your own living room.

Question 10

The elimination period in a long-term care policy functions as what?

Why

Like the elimination period in disability income coverage, the LTC elimination period is the number of days at the start of care the insured pays out of pocket before policy benefits begin; a longer one lowers the premium. Hook: the elimination period is the upfront waiting stretch before LTC benefits start.

9 Federal Tax Considerations — Health Insurance

Question 1

An insured deducts medical expenses on their tax return and is later reimbursed by their health insurer for those same expenses. What is the general tax result?

Why

You can't get a tax benefit twice for the same dollar. If you deducted a medical expense and the insurer later reimburses it, that reimbursed amount can become taxable to undo the earlier deduction. Hook: no double-dipping, deduct and then get reimbursed, and the reimbursement is pulled back into income.

Question 2

Premiums paid by an individual for a personally owned disability income policy are generally treated how?

Why

Premiums for an individually owned disability income policy are not deductible; they're paid with after-tax dollars. That sets up the favorable treatment of the benefits. Hook: no deduction for personal DI premiums, you pay them after tax.

Question 3

Benefits received from an individually owned disability income policy (premiums paid with after-tax dollars) are generally treated how?

Why

Because the insured paid the premiums with after-tax dollars and got no deduction, the disability benefits come back income-tax-free. This is why individual DI benefits aren't reduced by taxes. Hook: after-tax premiums in means tax-free benefits out, the core DI rule.

Question 4

Which principle best summarizes how disability income benefits are taxed based on who paid the premium and how?

Why

The governing rule is symmetry: tax-free premiums going in lead to taxable benefits coming out, and after-tax premiums going in lead to tax-free benefits coming out. It applies across both individual and group disability coverage. Hook: the tax gets paid somewhere, either on the premium or on the benefit, never both and never neither.

Question 5

Premiums an employer pays for a group health (medical expense) plan covering employees are generally treated how for the employer?

Why

Employer-paid group health premiums are a deductible business expense, a major reason employers offer health benefits. Hook: the employer writes off group health premiums as a business cost.

Question 6

Medical expense benefits an employee receives under an employer group health plan are generally what?

Why

Just like individual medical expense benefits, group medical benefits reimburse care and aren't treated as income, so they're tax-free to the employee. Hook: group medical benefits reimburse bills, so they're tax-free.

Question 7

The key factor that determines whether group disability income benefits are taxable to the employee is what?

Why

Taxability of disability benefits turns on how the premiums were funded: pre-tax employer dollars lead to taxable benefits, after-tax employee dollars lead to tax-free benefits. Hook: follow the premium dollars, pre-tax in equals taxable out.

Question 8

A key difference in employee taxation between employer-paid group health benefits and employer-paid group disability benefits is that:

Why

Employer-paid medical expense benefits reimburse care and stay tax-free, but employer-paid disability income benefits replace taxable wages, so they're taxable to the employee. The benefit type, not just the funding, matters here. Hook: employer health benefits stay tax-free, while employer-paid disability benefits are taxed because they replace a paycheck.

Question 9

A health savings account (HSA) is sometimes called triple tax-advantaged because of which combination?

Why

The HSA's triple advantage is contributions that are deductible or pre-tax, earnings that grow tax-free, and withdrawals that are tax-free when used for qualified medical expenses. Few accounts offer all three. Hook: HSA equals a tax break going in, growing, and coming out, all three.

Question 10

Benefits received from a tax-qualified long-term care policy are generally treated how?

Why

Benefits from a tax-qualified LTC policy are generally received income-tax-free, up to a stated per diem limit set by law. Amounts above that limit may be taxable unless they reflect actual incurred expenses. Hook: qualified LTC benefits come tax-free, within a daily cap.

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