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Free Indiana Life, Accident & Health Practice Questions

Real questions in the style of the Indiana Life, Accident & Health licensing exam, pulled straight from the TESTivity course, each with a plain-English explanation. Start with the Indiana-specific rules below, then work the rest, and unlock the full simulator when you're ready to drill.

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That's right — 34% of test-takers do not pass the Indiana Life, Accident & Health exam on their first attempt. Make sure you're part of the 66% who do.

First-time pass rate: 66% · Source: NAIC, 2024 (most recent available statistics)

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1 Insurance Basics & Foundational Concepts

Question 1

In insurance terms, a 'peril' refers to:

Why

Keep these three straight and you'll bank easy points all day: a peril is the cause of loss (fire, wind, theft), a hazard is something that increases the chance or severity of that loss, and risk is the uncertainty of loss itself. The peril is the thing that actually does the damage.

Question 2

The law of large numbers is important to insurers because it:

Why

An insurer can't predict whether your house specifically will burn down, but give them a big enough pool of similar homes and they can predict pretty accurately how many out of the whole group will. That's the law of large numbers: more similar exposures, more reliable predictions. It's the statistical engine that makes pricing coverage possible at all.

Question 3

Purchasing an insurance policy is an example of which risk management technique?

Why

Buying insurance is the classic risk transfer: you hand the financial consequences of a loss to the insurer in exchange for a premium. Avoidance means not doing the risky thing at all, retention means keeping the risk yourself (like a deductible), and reduction means lowering the odds or severity (smoke detectors). Insurance equals transfer.

Question 4

Adverse selection refers to the tendency of:

Why

Adverse selection is the insurer's headache: the people most likely to have a loss are also the most eager to buy and keep coverage. If underwriting didn't push back, the risk pool would fill up with bad risks and the math would collapse. It's exactly why underwriting and exclusions exist.

Question 5

The primary purpose of reinsurance is to:

Why

Reinsurance is insurance for insurance companies. The original insurer (the ceding company) hands off part of its risk to a reinsurer so one giant loss doesn't sink it. Individuals never deal with reinsurers directly; it all happens behind the scenes between carriers.

Question 6

For the law of large numbers to work effectively, the exposures in a group should be:

Why

The law of large numbers needs lots of similar exposures to make predictions reliable. A big pool of comparable homes lets the insurer forecast losses; a handful of wildly different ones doesn't. And concentrating them all in one spot is actually bad: one hurricane could wipe out the whole pool at once.

Question 7

Policyholder dividends paid by a mutual insurer are:

Why

A mutual insurer is owned by its policyholders, so a 'dividend' is really a return of overpaid premium, which is why it's generally not taxable. And it's never guaranteed; it depends on the company's results. Stock dividends, by contrast, go to stockholders and are taxable.

Question 8

A policy that pays dividends to its policyholders is referred to as a:

Why

Participating policies 'participate' in the insurer's profits by paying policy dividends, and are typically issued by mutual companies. Nonparticipating policies don't pay dividends and are typically issued by stock companies. The word 'participate' is your tell.

Question 9

An agent who represents only one insurance company and does not own the policy expirations is typically called a:

Why

A captive (or exclusive) agent represents a single insurer, and that insurer owns the book of business. An independent agent represents multiple companies and owns their own expirations (the renewal rights). The ownership-of-expirations detail is the classic distinguisher.

Question 10

The intentional failure to disclose a known material fact when applying for insurance is called:

Why

Concealment is staying silent about a material fact you know the insurer would want, and if it's intentional, it can void the policy. It's the sin-of-omission version of misrepresentation (which is an active false statement). Both turn on the fact being 'material,' meaning it would have affected the insurer's decision.

2 Life Insurance Basics

Question 1

A business purchases life insurance on its most valuable employee to protect against the financial loss of that person's death. This is known as:

Why

Key person (or key employee) insurance protects the business itself against losing someone whose death would really hurt the bottom line. The business owns the policy, pays the premiums, and is the beneficiary. If the key person dies, the company gets funds to cover the disruption and find a replacement.

Question 2

A buy-sell agreement funded with life insurance is primarily designed to:

Why

A buy-sell agreement is a pre-arranged deal: when an owner dies, the surviving owners (or the business) buy out the deceased's share, and life insurance provides the cash to fund the purchase. It keeps the business in the right hands and gives the deceased owner's family a fair payout without a fire sale.

Question 3

In a cross-purchase buy-sell agreement, who owns the life insurance policies?

Why

In a cross-purchase plan, each owner buys a policy on each of the other owners, so they personally buy out a deceased partner's share. Compare that to an entity (stock redemption) plan, where the business owns the policies and does the buying. Cross-purchase equals owners insuring each other; entity equals the company insuring the owners.

Question 4

Under an executive bonus (Section 162) plan, the life insurance policy is owned by:

Why

In a Section 162 executive bonus plan, the employer pays the premium as a bonus, but the executive owns the policy and names the beneficiary. The bonus is tax-deductible to the employer and taxable income to the executive. The big perk: the employee keeps the policy even if they leave.

Question 5

The human life value approach to determining life insurance needs is based on:

Why

The human life value (HLV) approach asks: what's the dollar value of this person's future income to their family? It estimates the years of earnings left, adjusts to present value, and that's the coverage target. It's an income-based lens, versus the needs approach, which adds up specific obligations instead.

Question 6

The three primary factors used to calculate a life insurance premium are mortality, interest, and:

Why

Life premiums rest on three legs: mortality (the expected cost of paying claims), interest (what the insurer earns investing your premium, which lowers the cost), and expenses (the loading for operating costs). Mortality pushes premium up, interest pulls it down, expenses add the overhead.

Question 7

Which factor would tend to increase a life insurance premium?

Why

Higher mortality means more expected claims, so it drives premium up. Higher assumed interest does the opposite, lowering premium because the insurer expects to earn more on your money. Lower expenses and a younger insured both push premium down. Mortality up equals premium up.

Question 8

The 'loading' added to a net premium to arrive at the gross premium covers the insurer's:

Why

Net premium covers mortality and interest. Loading is the extra piled on top for the insurer's expenses, commissions, overhead, and margin, so net premium plus loading equals the gross premium you actually pay. Loading equals the cost of doing business.

Question 9

An applicant pays the initial premium with the application and receives a conditional receipt. Coverage will generally become effective:

Why

A conditional receipt offers coverage back to the application or exam date, but only on the condition that the applicant turns out to be insurable as applied. If they qualify, they're covered from that earlier date, even if they die before the policy is formally issued. The key word is conditional.

Question 10

When a new life insurance policy will replace an existing one, the producer is generally required to:

Why

Replacement is heavily regulated because it can hurt the consumer (a new contestable period, new surrender charges, lost benefits). Producers must follow replacement rules: notify the existing insurer, give the client required disclosure notices, and make sure the swap is actually in the client's interest, not just the agent's.

3 Life Insurance Policies

Question 1

Which of the following is a feature of whole life insurance?

Why

Whole life is the workhorse of permanent insurance: lifelong coverage, level premiums that never change, a guaranteed death benefit, and guaranteed cash value that builds over time. You pay more than term, but you get permanence plus a savings element with guarantees attached.

Question 2

The cash value in a whole life policy grows on a:

Why

Cash value grows tax-deferred: you don't pay taxes on the gains as they accumulate inside the policy. Tax can come into play later if you surrender for more than your basis, but year to year, that internal growth isn't taxed. Deferred, not necessarily tax-free.

Question 3

A traditional whole life policy is designed to 'endow' (cash value equals the face amount) at approximately age:

Why

Endowment is the point where the cash value catches up to the face amount and the policy 'matures.' On older whole life policies that's age 100; newer ones push it to 121. If the insured lives that long, the insurer pays out the face amount as a maturity benefit.

Question 4

A single premium whole life policy is funded by:

Why

Single premium whole life is bought with one big upfront payment, and the policy is immediately paid up for life with substantial cash value from day one. It's often used as a wealth-transfer or estate tool. Heads up: large single-premium policies can become MECs, which changes the tax treatment.

Question 5

A defining feature of universal life insurance is:

Why

Universal life is the flexible permanent option: within limits, you can raise or lower premiums, skip a payment if there's enough cash value to cover costs, and adjust the death benefit. That flexibility is the trade-off for fewer hard guarantees than whole life.

Question 6

If a universal life policyowner stops paying premiums, the policy will:

Why

UL's flexibility means you can skip premiums, but only as long as there's enough cash value to cover the monthly cost-of-insurance and expense charges. When the cash value runs dry and can't cover those deductions, the policy lapses. Flexible isn't the same as free.

Question 7

To sell variable life insurance, a producer must hold:

Why

Because variable products are regulated as securities, selling them takes a dual qualification: a state life insurance license plus a FINRA securities registration. A plain life license alone isn't enough. The investment component is what triggers the securities rules.

Question 8

Variable universal life (VUL) combines the flexible premiums of universal life with:

Why

VUL is the mashup: UL's flexible premiums and adjustable death benefit, plus variable life's investment choice, where the owner directs cash value into subaccounts and bears the market risk. Maximum flexibility and maximum exposure. It's also a security, so it needs the dual license.

Question 9

Compared with individual life insurance, group life insurance typically involves:

Why

Group plans underwrite the group as a whole, not each person, so members usually get coverage with little or no medical underwriting up to a guaranteed issue limit. The large, naturally-formed group spreads the risk, which is why a new employee can often get coverage without an exam.

Question 10

A contributory group life insurance plan is one in which:

Why

In a contributory plan, employees chip in toward the premium (often via payroll deduction), so insurers usually require at least 75% participation to guard against adverse selection. In a noncontributory plan the employer pays it all and typically 100% of eligible employees must be covered. Who pays drives the participation rule.

4 Life Insurance Provisions, Options & Riders

Question 1

A policyowner receives a new life insurance policy and decides within the free look period that it isn't right for them. What are they entitled to do?

Why

The free look (sometimes called the right-to-examine period) lets the owner return the policy within a set number of days, usually 10, for a full refund of every dollar paid. Think of it like a receipt-in-hand store return: you get cash back, not a store credit. It exists because a life policy is a big commitment people often buy on an agent's recommendation, so the law builds in a cooling-off window.

Question 2

An insured dies during the policy's grace period without having paid the overdue premium. What does the insurer do?

Why

The grace period (commonly about a month, often 30 or 31 days) keeps the policy in force even after a premium is missed, so coverage doesn't lapse the moment a payment is late. If the insured dies during that window the company still pays; it just subtracts the premium that was owed. The grace period protects against accidental lapse, and the only catch at death is the company collecting what it was already due.

Question 3

After an insured dies, the insurer learns the insured understated their age on the application. How is the claim handled?

Why

The misstatement of age (or sex) provision is a fix-it clause, not a gotcha. Because premium is based on age, the company simply recalculates and pays the death benefit the premiums actually paid would have purchased at the true age. Understate your age and the payout shrinks a bit, but the policy isn't canceled. It adjusts the benefit; it doesn't kill the claim.

Question 4

A policyowner transfers only partial rights in their policy to a bank as security for a loan. This is an example of what?

Why

A collateral assignment is a partial, temporary transfer: you pledge the policy (usually its death benefit up to the loan amount) as collateral, and once the debt is paid the rights revert to you. Compare that to an absolute assignment, which is a complete, permanent transfer of ownership. Easy hook: collateral assignment is literally as collateral for a loan (partial), while absolute means absolutely everything (full).

Question 5

An owner uses the policy's cash value as a single premium to buy a smaller whole life policy with no further premiums due. Which nonforfeiture option is this?

Why

With reduced paid-up insurance, the cash value is applied as one lump-sum premium to purchase a fully paid-up policy of the same type, meaning permanent coverage that lasts for life, just at a lower face amount. You keep lifelong protection and never pay another premium. Read the name as a checklist: reduced (smaller face) plus paid-up (no more premiums), and it stays permanent.

Question 6

A policyowner chooses the cash surrender nonforfeiture option. What happens to the coverage?

Why

Cash surrender is the most straightforward option: you take the cash value in hand and the policy ends, with no more coverage. It's the right move when you no longer need the insurance and want the money, but be aware that any gain above total premiums paid can be taxable. Surrender means exactly what it sounds like, you give up the policy entirely in exchange for the cash.

Question 7

Policy dividends from a participating (par) whole life policy are best described as what?

Why

A participating policy can pay dividends, but they're not investment earnings, they're treated as a return of premium the company overcharged, which is exactly why they're generally not taxable. And because they depend on the insurer's actual experience (mortality, expenses, investment results), they're never guaranteed. A dividend is your own money coming back, not a profit the company promises.

Question 8

An owner leaves dividends with the insurer to earn interest. What is the tax treatment?

Why

Under accumulation at interest, the dividend itself stays a tax-free return of premium, but once it sits with the insurer and earns interest, that interest is taxable income, just like interest in a savings account. So the dividend is tax-free coming back to you; the moment it starts earning, the earnings are fair game for the IRS.

Question 9

A beneficiary selects the straight life (life-only) income option and dies after receiving just three payments. What happens to the remaining proceeds?

Why

Straight life income pays the largest monthly check because it's a pure bet on longevity: payments continue for the recipient's lifetime and stop the instant they die, with nothing left for heirs. Die early and the insurer keeps the balance; live a long time and you can collect well beyond the original proceeds. Life only means exactly that, the biggest payment but zero guarantee to anyone else.

Question 10

An accidental death benefit (double indemnity) rider pays an additional amount only when the insured's death results from what?

Why

The accidental death benefit rider, often called double indemnity, pays extra (frequently twice the face amount) only when death is caused by an accident, and usually only if death occurs within a set period (commonly 90 days) of that accident and before a stated age. Death from illness or natural causes pays the base amount only. It's strictly an accident rider, so natural causes don't trigger the bonus.

5 Annuities

Question 1

In an annuity contract, the annuitant is the person whose what determines the size of the payout?

Why

The annuitant is the measuring life: their age and life expectancy drive how big each income payment is, because the insurer is calculating how long it will likely have to pay. The annuitant is often, but not always, the same person as the owner. Think of the annuitant as the yardstick the insurer measures the payout against.

Question 2

The accumulation phase of a deferred annuity is the period during which what happens?

Why

During accumulation (also called the pay-in or savings phase), the owner contributes money and the contract value grows without being taxed each year. Nothing is paid out yet; the payout, or annuitization, stage comes later. Hook: accumulation equals money going in and compounding tax-deferred.

Question 3

Annuitization refers to what?

Why

Annuitization is the switch from saving to spending: the owner converts the accumulated value into a guaranteed income stream and chooses a payout option that sets how long, and to whom, payments run. Once you annuitize, you've generally traded the lump sum for the income. Hook: annuitize means turn the pile of money into a paycheck.

Question 4

In a variable annuity, how do accumulation units differ from annuity units?

Why

A variable annuity tracks your money in accumulation units while you're paying in, and their value rises and falls with the separate-account subaccounts. When you annuitize, those convert into annuity units, which then determine each variable income payment. Hook: accumulation units are the saving-phase scoreboard, annuity units are the paying-phase scoreboard.

Question 5

A deferred annuity is one that does what?

Why

A deferred annuity postpones the income phase, sometimes by decades, while the money grows tax-deferred in the meantime. It's the accumulation-focused cousin of the immediate annuity. Hook: deferred means the payout is deferred to later, so it's built for growing money before you need the income.

Question 6

A fixed annuity guarantees the owner what?

Why

A fixed annuity promises a guaranteed minimum interest rate during accumulation and a fixed, predictable income at payout. The insurer holds these funds in its general account and shoulders the investment risk. Hook: fixed means fixed, guaranteed numbers, prioritizing safety and predictability over upside.

Question 7

In a variable annuity, who bears the investment risk?

Why

Because the value rides on the subaccounts' performance, the owner, not the insurer, bears the investment risk in a variable annuity. Strong markets can grow the value, weak ones can shrink it, with no fixed guarantee on the gain. Hook: variable risk sits with the owner, fixed risk sits with the insurer; they're mirror images.

Question 8

To sell variable annuities, a producer must generally hold what?

Why

Because a variable annuity is both an insurance product and a security, selling it requires dual qualification: a life insurance license from the state plus a securities registration through FINRA, and the prospect must receive a prospectus. Hook: it's part insurance, part investment, so you need both sets of credentials.

Question 9

Earnings inside a nonqualified annuity during the accumulation phase are treated how for tax purposes?

Why

One of the annuity's main draws is tax deferral: interest and gains compound untaxed during accumulation, and you owe tax only when money comes out. Deferring the tax lets more dollars stay invested and compound. Hook: nothing is taxed until you take it out, which is the whole appeal of the accumulation phase.

Question 10

Withdrawing taxable gain from an annuity before age 59 1/2 generally results in what?

Why

Like other tax-favored retirement vehicles, annuities carry an early-withdrawal penalty: pull taxable gain before age 59 1/2 and the IRS adds a 10% penalty on top of the ordinary income tax you already owe. It's meant to discourage using a retirement tool as a piggy bank. Hook: 59 1/2 is the magic age; touch the gains early and there's a 10% penalty.

6 Federal Tax Considerations — Life, Annuities & Qualified Plans

Question 1

A beneficiary receives a $250,000 life insurance death benefit as a lump sum. How is it generally treated for federal income tax?

Why

A life insurance death benefit paid as a lump sum is generally received free of federal income tax, no matter the size. That income-tax-free payout is one of the biggest reasons life insurance is such a powerful planning tool. Hook: the lump-sum death benefit lands in the beneficiary's hands income-tax-free.

Question 2

Under the transfer-for-value rule, what can happen to the income-tax-free status of a death benefit?

Why

Normally death benefits are income-tax-free, but the transfer-for-value rule says that if a policy is sold or transferred for valuable consideration, the portion of the benefit above the buyer's cost can become taxable income. There are key exceptions (transfers to the insured, a business partner, a partnership, or a corporation in which the insured is an officer or shareholder). Hook: sell a policy for value and you can taint the tax-free payout, unless an exception applies.

Question 3

How are policy dividends and the interest they earn under the accumulation option treated for tax?

Why

Because a dividend is treated as a return of overpaid premium, it isn't taxable when paid. But if you leave it to accumulate at interest, that interest is taxable, the same logic found everywhere in tax: your own money back is free, earnings on it are taxed. Hook: dividend equals return of premium (free), interest on it equals earnings (taxed).

Question 4

A life insurance policy becomes a Modified Endowment Contract (MEC) when it does what?

Why

A MEC results when a policy is funded faster than the 7-pay test allows, essentially cramming too much premium in too soon, which Congress decided looked more like an investment than insurance. The death benefit stays income-tax-free, but the living benefits lose their friendly tax treatment. Hook: overfund it past the 7-pay limit and it gets reclassified as a MEC.

Question 5

A key employee dies and the business collects the death benefit from a key person policy. How are the proceeds generally taxed to the business?

Why

The death benefit a business receives from a key person policy is generally income-tax-free, just like any other life insurance death benefit. That's the payoff for not being able to deduct the premiums. Hook: nondeductible premiums in, tax-free proceeds out, the classic key person trade-off.

Question 6

Under Section 79, how much employer-provided group term life insurance can an employee receive before the cost of the coverage becomes taxable income?

Why

An employee can receive up to $50,000 of employer-paid group term life with no income tax on the cost of that coverage. Above $50,000, the IRS imputes income based on a standard cost table. Hook: $50,000 is the magic line for tax-free group term life, and the cost of anything above it becomes taxable to the employee.

Question 7

A buy-sell agreement funded with life insurance is designed primarily to do what?

Why

A buy-sell agreement funded with life insurance guarantees that, when an owner dies, cash is available to buy out their share, so the surviving owners keep control and the deceased owner's family receives fair value in cash. Hook: it funds the buyout of a departed owner's interest so the business transitions cleanly.

Question 8

How is a distribution from a qualified annuity (funded entirely with pre-tax dollars) generally taxed?

Why

Because a qualified annuity is funded with pre-tax dollars, none of it has been taxed yet, so the whole distribution, contributions and earnings alike, is taxed as ordinary income. There's no basis to exclude. Hook: pre-tax money in means 100% taxable out, with nothing to shield.

Question 9

Distributions from a traditional IRA funded with deductible contributions are generally taxed how?

Why

A traditional IRA gives you the deduction up front and tax-deferred growth, so distributions are taxed as ordinary income when you take them in retirement. Hook: traditional IRA means a tax break now, taxed later as ordinary income.

Question 10

A qualified distribution from a Roth IRA is treated how for federal income tax?

Why

A Roth IRA flips the deal: you contribute after-tax dollars (no deduction), but a qualified distribution, generally after age 59 1/2 and a five-year holding period, comes out completely tax-free, earnings included. Hook: Roth means no deduction now but tax-free qualified withdrawals later, the mirror image of a traditional IRA.

7 Accident & Health Insurance Basics

Question 1

Disability income insurance is designed primarily to do what?

Why

Disability income coverage doesn't pay medical bills; it replaces a paycheck. When illness or injury keeps you from working, it provides periodic income (usually a percentage of your earnings) so the bills at home still get paid. Hook: disability income protects the paycheck, not the medical bill.

Question 2

Modern accident policies generally define a covered accident using which standard?

Why

Older policies used the stricter accidental means test (the cause had to be unexpected), but the modern trend is the accidental results, or accidental bodily injury, standard, which only requires that the injury be unintended. It's a more generous, claimant-friendly definition. Hook: results, not means; the newer standard looks at the unexpected injury, not the cause.

Question 3

For coverage purposes, a sickness under a health policy is typically defined as an illness that does what?

Why

Most health policies define a covered sickness as one that first appears (manifests) and is contracted while the coverage is in force. This wording is what lets insurers exclude pre-existing conditions that showed up before the policy started. Hook: a covered sickness has to show up on the policy's watch, not before it began.

Question 4

In group health insurance, the master contract is issued to whom?

Why

In group coverage the insurer issues one master contract to the group sponsor (typically the employer), and each covered member receives a certificate of coverage rather than an individual policy. Hook: the employer holds the master contract; employees hold certificates.

Question 5

When must insurable interest exist for an individual health insurance policy?

Why

For health insurance, insurable interest must exist when the policy is applied for; you naturally have it in your own health, and, for example, an employer has it in a key employee. Unlike property insurance, it isn't re-tested at the time of loss. Hook: insurable interest is checked at the start, when the application is taken.

Question 6

Which renewability classification gives the insured the least security?

Why

A cancelable policy lets the insurer terminate coverage at virtually any time with proper written notice (returning any unearned premium), making it the least secure arrangement for the insured. The other classifications all restrict when, or whether, the insurer can walk away. Hook: cancelable means the insurer can pull the plug almost anytime, so it's the weakest guarantee.

Question 7

A deductible in a health insurance policy is best described as what?

Why

The deductible is the insured's upfront share, the amount you pay before the insurer's coverage kicks in for the year. A higher deductible usually means a lower premium, since you're absorbing more of the early cost. Hook: the deductible is what you pay first, before the insurer pays anything.

Question 8

The Medical Information Bureau (MIB) primarily helps insurers do what?

Why

The MIB is a nonprofit information exchange whose member insurers report coded medical and risk information. It flags inconsistencies, such as a condition disclosed on a prior application but omitted on a new one, but an insurer can't decline coverage based on MIB data alone. Hook: the MIB is a tip-off network for catching omissions, not a stand-alone reason to decline.

Question 9

When an insurer needs detailed medical history about a specific condition disclosed on an application, it typically requests what?

Why

An attending physician's statement (APS) is a report the insurer obtains, with the applicant's authorization, from the doctor who treated a disclosed condition. It fills in clinical details the application alone can't provide. Hook: when underwriters need the medical specifics, they go to the treating doctor for an APS.

Question 10

Under the Fair Credit Reporting Act, an applicant must be notified when which of the following may be obtained?

Why

The Fair Credit Reporting Act requires that an applicant be told, in advance, that an investigative consumer report, which gathers information on character, lifestyle, and reputation through interviews, may be obtained. The applicant also has the right to learn the nature and scope of the report. Hook: the FCRA guarantees you advance notice that a lifestyle or reputation report may be pulled.

8 Individual A&H Policy Provisions

Question 1

Under the entire contract; changes provision, who has the authority to change the terms of a health policy?

Why

Changes to the contract are valid only when approved in writing by an executive officer of the insurer, and even then they must be noted on or attached to the policy. An agent has no power to waive or alter provisions. Hook: only a company officer can change the deal, never the agent at your kitchen table.

Question 2

The grace period provision in a health policy does what?

Why

The grace period is a short window after a premium's due date during which the insured can still pay and keep the policy in force, so a late payment doesn't immediately cause a lapse. Hook: the grace period is breathing room to pay late without losing coverage.

Question 3

Under the reinstatement provision, if a lapsed policy's reinstatement application is neither approved nor declined, the policy is automatically reinstated after how many days?

Why

If the insurer requires an application for reinstatement and then neither approves it nor rejects it by sending written notice, the policy is automatically reinstated on the 45th day after the application date. Hook: insurer silence for 45 days equals automatic reinstatement.

Question 4

Under the optional unpaid premium provision, what may an insurer do when a claim is payable and a premium is overdue?

Why

The unpaid premium provision lets the insurer simply subtract any premium then due and unpaid from the benefits it pays out, rather than denying the claim. Hook: the insurer just nets the overdue premium out of the claim check.

Question 5

Under the notice of claim provision, the insured must generally give written notice of a claim within how many days of a loss?

Why

Written notice of claim must be given within 20 days after a covered loss, or as soon as reasonably possible. It simply alerts the insurer that a claim is coming. Hook: 20 days to put the insurer on notice that a loss occurred.

Question 6

After receiving notice of a claim, the insurer must furnish claim forms to the insured within how many days?

Why

The insurer has 15 days after notice of claim to send the claimant the forms used to file proof of loss. Hook: notice of claim starts a 15-day clock for the insurer to provide claim forms.

Question 7

Under the proof of loss provision, the insured must generally submit proof of loss within how many days of a loss?

Why

Proof of loss, the documentation supporting the claim, must be furnished within 90 days after the loss, or as soon as reasonably possible. It's a longer window than the 20-day notice because it requires more detail. Hook: 20 days to notify, 90 days to prove.

Question 8

The facility of payment clause within the payment of claims provision allows the insurer to do what?

Why

The facility of payment clause lets the insurer pay up to a stated amount to a relative or whoever appears equitably entitled, which is useful when there's no living beneficiary or the insured is deceased or incapacitated. It gives the insurer a practical way to settle small amounts without a court. Hook: facility of payment is the insurer's shortcut to pay someone fairly entitled when no beneficiary fits.

Question 9

Under the legal actions provision, what is the maximum time, generally, that an insured has to bring suit after proof of loss is required?

Why

The insured generally has up to 3 years (5 in some states) from the time proof of loss is required to file a lawsuit, after which the right to sue expires. Hook: at least 60 days before you can sue, no more than 3 years after, that's the legal-action window.

Question 10

The free look provision in an individual health policy typically gives the insured how long to return the policy for a full refund?

Why

The free look period, commonly 10 days, lets a new policyowner examine the policy and return it for a full premium refund if they decide it isn't right. Hook: about 10 days to look it over and back out for a full refund.

9 Disability Income & Related Insurance

Question 1

A residual disability benefit pays an amount based on what?

Why

Residual disability coverage pays a partial benefit scaled to your loss of income, so if a disability cuts your earnings by 40%, you collect roughly 40% of the total disability benefit. It bridges the gap when you can work but not at full capacity. Hook: residual benefits track your percentage of lost income.

Question 2

Under a presumptive disability provision, an insured is automatically considered totally disabled upon which of the following?

Why

Presumptive disability treats certain severe losses, such as total loss of sight, hearing, speech, or any two limbs, as automatically and totally disabling, so full benefits are paid even if the insured could technically still work. Often no elimination period applies. Hook: lose sight, hearing, speech, or two limbs and you're presumed totally disabled, no questions asked.

Question 3

Individual disability income benefits are most commonly set at roughly what percentage of the insured's earned income?

Why

Insurers typically issue benefits in the range of about 60% to 66 2/3% of gross earned income. Since individually paid benefits are received tax-free, that range often comes close to the insured's after-tax take-home pay. Hook: think roughly two-thirds of income, which lands near net take-home pay.

Question 4

An insured earns $5,000 per month and owns a disability income policy that pays a 60% benefit. Ignoring any other coverage, what is the monthly disability benefit?

Why

The benefit is simply 60% of monthly earned income: 0.60 times $5,000 equals $3,000 per month. The remaining 40% stays uninsured on purpose, preserving the incentive to return to work. Hook: 60% of $5,000 is $3,000, the monthly check.

Question 5

A social insurance supplement (SIS) rider pays a benefit under which circumstance?

Why

A social insurance supplement rider is designed to fill the gap if Social Security disability benefits are denied, delayed, or paid at a reduced amount, paying the supplement in their place and stepping down as Social Security pays. Hook: the SIS rider covers the shortfall when Social Security disability falls through or comes up short.

Question 6

A return of premium rider on a disability income policy provides what?

Why

A return of premium rider refunds part of the premiums paid, less any claims, after a stated number of years, rewarding insureds who stay healthy. It raises the premium in exchange for that potential refund. Hook: stay claim-free and the insurer hands back a chunk of your premiums.

Question 7

A business overhead expense (BOE) disability policy is designed to do what?

Why

Business overhead expense coverage reimburses fixed business costs, rent, utilities, employee salaries, and the like, while the owner is disabled, so the business can keep its doors open. It pays actual covered expenses on a reimbursement basis over a relatively short benefit period and does not replace the owner's own income. Hook: BOE keeps the lights on at the business, not money in the owner's pocket.

Question 8

A disability buy-sell policy provides funds for which purpose?

Why

A disability buy-sell arrangement supplies the money for the remaining owners (or the business) to purchase the share of an owner who becomes permanently disabled, mirroring how a life-insurance buy-sell works at death. Hook: it funds the buyout of a disabled owner's stake in the business.

Question 9

Workers' compensation disability benefits cover injuries and illnesses that are what?

Why

Workers' compensation is an occupational-only program: it pays for work-related injuries and illnesses regardless of fault, but covers nothing that happens off the job. That's why private and group DI often coordinate around it. Hook: workers' comp covers on-the-job harm only.

Question 10

Group disability income plans are often written on a nonoccupational basis, covering off-the-job disabilities only, primarily because what?

Why

Group plans are commonly nonoccupational because employees are already protected on the job by workers' compensation, so the group plan avoids duplicating that coverage and instead handles off-the-job disabilities. Hook: group DI skips on-the-job claims because workers' comp already has them.

10 Medical Plans

Question 1

A surgical expense policy that lists a specific dollar amount payable for each type of operation uses what approach?

Why

A scheduled surgical plan assigns a set dollar benefit to each listed procedure, so an appendectomy pays one amount and a different surgery pays another. If the surgeon charges more than the schedule amount, the insured covers the difference. Hook: a surgical schedule is a fixed price list, one dollar figure per operation.

Question 2

A supplementary major medical plan is designed to do what?

Why

Supplementary (or superimposed) major medical layers on top of a basic plan, picking up large or extended expenses once the basic plan's limited benefits run out. Hook: supplementary major medical is the backup layer that kicks in after basic runs dry.

Question 3

In a supplementary major medical plan, the corridor deductible refers to the amount the insured pays where?

Why

The corridor deductible is the gap the insured must cover between the exhaustion of the basic plan's benefits and the start of the supplementary major medical benefits. It links the two layers together. Hook: the corridor is the deductible bridge between basic running out and major medical starting.

Question 4

Capitation, as used by an HMO, refers to what?

Why

Under capitation, the HMO pays a provider a set amount for each member assigned to them per period, whether that member needs a lot of care or none. It gives providers an incentive to manage care efficiently. Hook: capitation pays per head, not per service.

Question 5

A high deductible health plan (HDHP) is characterized by what?

Why

An HDHP trades a higher annual deductible for a lower premium, with the insured covering more upfront cost before coverage kicks in. HDHPs are the plans that can be paired with a health savings account. Hook: HDHP equals high deductible and low premium, and it's the partner for an HSA.

Question 6

A health reimbursement arrangement (HRA) is funded by whom?

Why

An HRA is funded solely by the employer, which sets aside money to reimburse employees for qualified medical expenses. Because the employer owns it, the rules on carryover and portability are set by the employer. Hook: the employer funds and owns the HRA.

Question 7

Consumer-directed health plans (such as HDHPs paired with HSAs) are designed mainly to do what?

Why

Consumer-directed plans put more decision-making, and more of the early cost, in the consumer's hands, pairing a high deductible with a tax-favored account so people shop more carefully for care. Hook: consumer-directed means you steer the spending, with skin in the game.

Question 8

Precertification (prior authorization) in a managed care plan requires what?

Why

Precertification is a utilization-management tool: the plan reviews and approves certain planned services or admissions in advance to confirm they're medically necessary before agreeing to pay. Emergencies are generally exempt. Hook: precert means getting the plan's green light before non-emergency care.

Question 9

Under federal health reform rules, group and individual plans that offer dependent coverage must generally allow adult children to remain on a parent's plan until what age?

Why

Federal law generally lets young adults stay on a parent's health plan until they turn 26, regardless of student or marital status, when the plan offers dependent coverage. Hook: kids can ride a parent's plan to age 26.

Question 10

Under current federal health reform requirements, individual and small-group plans generally must do which of the following?

Why

Federal reform requires these plans to cover a core set of essential health benefits (things like hospitalization, prescription drugs, maternity, and preventive care) and bars them from denying coverage or claims based on pre-existing conditions. Hook: a guaranteed benefit floor, and no more pre-existing-condition lockouts.

11 Group Health Insurance

Question 1

In a group health plan, the individual covered members receive what document evidencing their coverage?

Why

The insurer issues one master contract to the group sponsor, and each covered member gets a certificate of coverage summarizing their benefits and rights. The members don't hold individual policies. Hook: the sponsor gets the master contract, the members get certificates.

Question 2

To be eligible for group insurance, a group must generally have been formed for what reason?

Why

A valid insurable group must exist for some primary reason other than getting insurance, such as an employer, a union, or a trade association, so the coverage is incidental and the group isn't just assembled to game the system. Hook: the group has to exist first for another reason, with insurance as a perk, not the point.

Question 3

A new employee who must wait a set time after being hired before becoming eligible for the group plan is in what period?

Why

The probationary period is the initial stretch of employment, often 30 to 90 days, that a new hire must complete before becoming eligible to enroll. It's followed by the enrollment (eligibility) period when they can actually sign up. Hook: the probationary period is the wait before a new hire can even enroll.

Question 4

An employee who declines coverage during the initial enrollment period and later wants to join is generally treated as what?

Why

Someone who passes up the on-time enrollment window becomes a late enrollee and may have to provide evidence of insurability or wait until an open enrollment period to join. The penalty discourages waiting until you're sick to sign up. Hook: enroll late and you may have to prove insurability or wait, the cost of not signing up on time.

Question 5

Federal COBRA continuation rights generally apply to employers with at least how many employees?

Why

COBRA applies to group health plans of employers with 20 or more employees. Smaller employers may be subject to state mini-COBRA laws instead. Hook: 20 employees is the federal COBRA threshold.

Question 6

Under COBRA, an employee who loses group coverage due to termination (other than for gross misconduct) or reduced hours may generally continue coverage for how long?

Why

Termination of employment (except for gross misconduct) or a reduction in hours is an 18-month qualifying event for the employee under COBRA. Hook: lose the job or the hours, get 18 months of COBRA.

Question 7

Under HIPAA, prior health coverage that can reduce a new plan's pre-existing condition exclusion period is known as what?

Why

Creditable coverage is prior, generally continuous, health coverage that gets credited against any pre-existing condition waiting period a new plan might impose, shortening or eliminating it. Hook: creditable coverage is the prior coverage you get credit for when you switch plans.

Question 8

When an employee is covered as an employee under their own group plan and as a dependent under a spouse's plan, coordination of benefits determines what?

Why

Coordination of benefits assigns one plan as primary (pays first) and the other as secondary (pays the balance up to allowable limits) so the total paid doesn't exceed the actual expense. Your own employer plan is usually primary for you. Hook: COB just sorts out who pays first and who pays the rest.

Question 9

For an active employee age 65 or older covered by both a large employer's group plan and Medicare, which generally pays first?

Why

For active employees age 65 and older at larger employers, the group health plan is primary and Medicare is secondary, under the Medicare Secondary Payer rules. The retiree situation can differ. Hook: still working at a big employer means the group plan leads and Medicare follows.

Question 10

The most common type of insurable group is which of the following?

Why

The single-employer, employer-employee group is by far the most common form of group coverage, with the employer as sponsor and policyholder. Other valid groups include associations, unions, and multiple-employer arrangements. Hook: employer-employee is the everyday group plan most people picture.

12 Dental & Vision Insurance

Question 1

A dental HMO (DHMO) generally pays participating dentists how?

Why

Like a medical HMO, a DHMO pays network dentists a capitation fee, a set amount per member assigned to them regardless of services used, and members generally must use network dentists. It emphasizes prepaid, managed dental care. Hook: a DHMO pays dentists per member (capitation), not per procedure.

Question 2

Which of the following would normally fall under the preventive/diagnostic category of a dental plan?

Why

Preventive and diagnostic care covers the routine maintenance items, cleanings, exams, and x-rays, that keep small problems from becoming big ones. Crowns and bridges are major services, and braces are orthodontia. Hook: cleanings and x-rays are textbook preventive care.

Question 3

The annual maximum benefit in a dental plan refers to what?

Why

The annual (calendar-year) maximum is the ceiling on what the plan pays per covered person each year; once reached, the patient pays the rest until the maximum resets the following year. Dental annual maximums are often modest. Hook: the annual max is the plan's yearly payout ceiling per person.

Question 4

Many dental plans impose a waiting period before covering which services?

Why

Plans often require a waiting period (such as 6 to 12 months) before paying for expensive major services, which discourages someone from enrolling, getting costly work, and then dropping the plan. Preventive care is usually available immediately. Hook: big-ticket dental work often comes with a waiting period; cleanings do not.

Question 5

Predetermination of benefits (pretreatment review) in a dental plan lets the patient and dentist do what before major work begins?

Why

With predetermination, the dentist submits the proposed treatment plan and the insurer estimates what it will cover before the work is done, so there are no payment surprises. It's recommended for expensive procedures. Hook: predetermination is a no-surprises preview of what the plan will pay.

Question 6

Under a least expensive alternative treatment (alternate benefit) provision, how does the plan pay when more than one acceptable treatment exists?

Why

The alternate benefit (LEAT) provision lets the plan calculate its payment based on the cheapest treatment that would adequately do the job. If the patient chooses a pricier option, they pay the difference. Hook: the plan pays for the cheapest adequate fix; upgrades are on the patient.

Question 7

Vision plans most commonly pay for materials like frames using what mechanism?

Why

Vision plans typically grant a fixed allowance toward frames or contacts (for example, an allowance applied at purchase), and the member pays anything above that allowance. Exams may carry a small copay. Hook: vision gives you an allowance to spend, and you cover the overage.

Question 8

A vision plan that covers an eye exam once every 12 months and new frames once every 24 months is using what feature?

Why

Frequency limitations cap how often each benefit can be used, such as one exam per year and frames every other year, controlling cost while still meeting routine needs. Hook: frequency limits set how often you can use each vision benefit.

Question 9

Many vision plans operate through a network of providers, paying higher benefits when the member uses an in-network optometrist or optician. This resembles which model?

Why

Network-based vision plans work much like a PPO: members get the best benefit (often a richer allowance or lower copay) by using in-network providers, with reduced benefits out of network. Hook: vision networks follow the PPO playbook, best deal inside the network.

Question 10

A managed vision care plan that contracts with providers paid on a per-member basis and requires members to use those providers most resembles which model?

Why

A managed vision plan that pays providers a fixed amount per member and limits members to its network mirrors the HMO/capitation model, trading provider choice for lower cost. Hook: capitation plus a required network equals the HMO model, applied to vision.

13 Senior & Special Needs Health Insurance

Question 1

The Initial Enrollment Period for Medicare is generally how long, centered on the person's 65th birthday month?

Why

The Initial Enrollment Period spans 7 months: the 3 months before your 65th-birthday month, that month itself, and the 3 months after. Enrolling on time avoids late penalties. Hook: a 7-month window, three before, the month of, and three after your 65th.

Question 2

For most people already receiving Social Security, enrollment in Medicare Part A at age 65 is generally what?

Why

People already drawing Social Security are usually enrolled in Part A automatically at 65, since Part A is premium-free for those with enough work credits. Part B enrollment may require action because it carries a premium. Hook: Part A usually arrives automatically when you're already on Social Security.

Question 3

Medicare Part A primarily covers which of the following?

Why

Part A is hospital insurance: it covers inpatient hospital stays, limited skilled nursing facility care, home health care, and hospice. Everyday doctor visits fall under Part B. Hook: Part A is the hospital side, inpatient, skilled nursing, home health, hospice.

Question 4

Medicare Part B primarily covers which of the following?

Why

Part B is medical insurance: it covers doctor visits, outpatient services, preventive care, lab tests, and durable medical equipment like wheelchairs. Inpatient hospital care is Part A. Hook: Part B is the doctor-and-outpatient side of Medicare.

Question 5

A person who delays enrolling in Medicare Part B without qualifying coverage may face what?

Why

Skipping Part B when first eligible, without other qualifying coverage, can trigger a lifelong premium surcharge for late enrollment. It's designed to encourage timely sign-up. Hook: wait too long on Part B and you pay a permanent penalty.

Question 6

A consumer enrolled in a Medicare Advantage (Part C) plan generally cannot also do what?

Why

Medigap is designed to fill gaps in Original Medicare, so it doesn't work with, and shouldn't be sold to, someone on a Medicare Advantage plan. Selling Medigap to an Advantage enrollee is a prohibited practice. Hook: Medigap and Medicare Advantage don't mix, one supplements Original Medicare, the other replaces it.

Question 7

Medicare Part D prescription drug coverage is provided how?

Why

Part D plans are offered by private insurers approved by Medicare, and enrollment is voluntary (with a possible late penalty for delaying). Beneficiaries choose a plan that fits their medications. Hook: Part D is private, optional drug coverage you sign up for.

Question 8

Which of the following is true of Medicaid's role in long-term care?

Why

Because Medicare largely excludes long-term custodial care, Medicaid has become a major payer of nursing home and long-term care, but only after a person has spent down assets to qualify under its strict financial limits. Hook: Medicaid is the big long-term-care payer, once you've spent down to qualify.

Question 9

Which of the following is one of the standard activities of daily living (ADLs) used as an LTC benefit trigger?

Why

The six ADLs are bathing, dressing, eating, transferring (moving in and out of a bed or chair), toileting, and continence. They measure basic self-care, not complex tasks like driving or managing finances. Hook: ADLs are the basics, bathing, dressing, eating, transferring, toileting, continence.

Question 10

Long-term care insurance commonly covers care delivered in which range of settings?

Why

Modern LTC policies cover care across a spectrum of settings, skilled nursing facilities, assisted living, adult day care centers, and care provided in the insured's own home, reflecting how people actually receive long-term care. Hook: good LTC follows the care wherever it happens, from a nursing home to your own living room.

14 Federal Tax Considerations — Health Insurance

Question 1

Premiums an individual pays for their own personal health insurance are generally treated how for federal income tax?

Why

Personal health insurance premiums generally aren't deductible, though they may count toward the itemized medical expense deduction if total medical costs clear the AGI threshold. Hook: personal health premiums usually get no deduction, paid with after-tax dollars.

Question 2

Benefits received under a personal medical expense (health) policy that reimburse the insured for medical costs are generally treated how?

Why

Medical expense benefits simply reimburse what you spent on care, so they aren't treated as income and are received tax-free. You can't deduct the same expense the insurer reimbursed, though. Hook: getting paid back for medical bills isn't income, so it's tax-free.

Question 3

Which principle best summarizes how disability income benefits are taxed based on who paid the premium and how?

Why

The governing rule is symmetry: tax-free premiums going in lead to taxable benefits coming out, and after-tax premiums going in lead to tax-free benefits coming out. It applies across both individual and group disability coverage. Hook: the tax gets paid somewhere, either on the premium or on the benefit, never both and never neither.

Question 4

Employer-paid group health insurance premiums are generally treated how for the covered employee?

Why

The value of employer-paid group health coverage is excluded from the employee's taxable income, so the employee gets the benefit tax-free. This is one of the most valuable tax breaks in the benefits world. Hook: employer-paid health coverage is tax-free to the employee, not counted as wages.

Question 5

In a group disability plan where the employer pays 60% of the premium and employees pay 40% with after-tax dollars, how are benefits generally taxed?

Why

When premiums are split, the benefits are taxed in proportion: the part attributable to the employer's deducted premium is taxable, and the part attributable to the employees' after-tax contributions is tax-free. Here that's about 60% taxable and 40% tax-free. Hook: split the premium, split the tax, in the same proportions.

Question 6

Premiums an employer pays for a group disability income plan are generally treated how for the employer?

Why

An employer can deduct group disability premiums as an ordinary business expense, just like other employee benefit costs. The trade-off is that the employee is then taxed on the benefits. Hook: the employer deducts the DI premiums, which is why the employee gets taxed later.

Question 7

When an employer pays group disability income premiums, those premiums are generally treated how for the employee at the time they are paid?

Why

The employer's premium payments aren't taxed to the employee when paid; the tax is deferred to the benefit stage if a claim arises. Hook: the premium isn't taxed now, the benefit is taxed later instead.

Question 8

Reimbursements an employee receives from an employer-funded health reimbursement arrangement (HRA) for qualified medical expenses are generally treated how?

Why

HRA reimbursements for qualified medical expenses are tax-free to the employee, and the employer funds and deducts the arrangement, another tax-favored health benefit. Hook: employer-funded HRA reimbursements reach the employee tax-free.

Question 9

A self-employed person may generally deduct their health insurance premiums how?

Why

The self-employed health insurance deduction lets self-employed individuals deduct premiums for medical, dental, and qualified LTC coverage above the line, without having to itemize, subject to certain limits. Hook: the self-employed get a special above-the-line write-off for their health premiums.

Question 10

Benefits received from a tax-qualified long-term care policy are generally treated how?

Why

Benefits from a tax-qualified LTC policy are generally received income-tax-free, up to a stated per diem limit set by law. Amounts above that limit may be taxable unless they reflect actual incurred expenses. Hook: qualified LTC benefits come tax-free, within a daily cap.

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