Free Practice

Free Kansas Accident & Health Practice Questions

Real questions in the style of the Kansas Accident & Health licensing exam, pulled straight from the TESTivity course, each with a plain-English explanation. Start with the Kansas-specific rules below, then work the rest, and unlock the full simulator when you're ready to drill.

Questions on exam84
Passing score70%
Test providerPearson VUE
Time limit1 hr 30 min
Pass rate56%

That's right — 44% of test-takers do not pass the Kansas Accident & Health exam on their first attempt. Make sure you're part of the 56% who do.

First-time pass rate: 56% · Source: NAIC, 2024 (most recent available statistics)

Practice Modes

Choose your practice mode

Same questions as the chapters below, re-dealt as a real test. Nothing to sign up for.

Simulate the Exam

A timed, scored run with no hints — the way test day actually feels.

  • 50 questions, timed
  • No feedback until you submit
  • Flag questions and come back
  • Scored against the real 70% standard

Quiz Mode

Answer, find out immediately, read why. Best for learning the material.

  • 25 questions, untimed
  • Instant right/wrong on every question
  • Plain-English explanation each time
  • Running score as you go

Fresh shuffle every time you start.

Build Your Own Practice Test

Drill only the chapters that are costing you points.

  • Pick any chapters you want
  • 5 to 150 questions
  • Timed or untimed, your call
  • Instant feedback on or off

Keeps your selection.

Just want to study with the answers showing? Every chapter on this page is open-book review mode — open one and start reading.

1 Insurance Basics & Foundational Concepts

Question 1

In insurance terms, a 'peril' refers to:

Why

Keep these three straight and you'll bank easy points all day: a peril is the cause of loss (fire, wind, theft), a hazard is something that increases the chance or severity of that loss, and risk is the uncertainty of loss itself. The peril is the thing that actually does the damage.

Question 2

Which of the following is the best example of a moral hazard?

Why

Moral hazard equals dishonesty. It's the risk that someone deliberately causes or exaggerates a loss to profit, like torching a failing business for the payout. Don't mix it up with morale hazard (carelessness, choice B) or physical hazard (the actual physical conditions in A and D).

Question 3

An insured who becomes careless about safety simply because they know they have insurance is displaying a:

Why

Morale hazard is the 'eh, I'm covered' attitude: indifference or carelessness that creeps in because insurance exists. It's not dishonesty (that's moral hazard) and it's not a physical condition (physical hazard). Trick to remember: moralE hazard is about a person's lazy attitudE.

Question 4

Which of the following is a characteristic of an ideally insurable risk?

Why

Insurers like risks that are accidental (due to chance, not intentional) and definite and measurable (you can pin down when, where, and how much). Add in 'predictable for large groups,' 'not catastrophic to the insurer,' and 'affordable premium,' and you've got the recipe for an insurable risk. A loss someone causes on purpose? Not insurable.

Question 5

A stock insurance company is owned by its:

Why

A stock insurer is owned by its stockholders (shareholders), who receive taxable dividends when the company profits. Policyholders are just customers. Contrast that with a mutual insurer, which is owned by its policyholders. Stock equals stockholders; mutual equals members/policyholders.

Question 6

A policy that pays dividends to its policyholders is referred to as a:

Why

Participating policies 'participate' in the insurer's profits by paying policy dividends, and are typically issued by mutual companies. Nonparticipating policies don't pay dividends and are typically issued by stock companies. The word 'participate' is your tell.

Question 7

An insurance broker legally represents the:

Why

A broker works for the insured, shopping the market on the client's behalf, while an agent works for the insurer. Same exam, different masters: keep them straight. Broker equals the buyer's side; agent equals the company's side.

Question 8

Because an insurance policy is drafted by the insurer and offered to the applicant on a 'take it or leave it' basis, it is classified as a contract of:

Why

A contract of adhesion is written by one party (the insurer) and accepted as-is by the other, with no line-by-line negotiating. The practical kicker: because the insured didn't get to write it, any ambiguity is interpreted in the insured's favor. That's a courtroom rule worth knowing.

Question 9

A statement made by an applicant on an insurance application that is believed to be true to the best of their knowledge is a:

Why

Representations are statements the applicant believes are true, and they only need to be true to the best of the applicant's knowledge. A warranty is a stronger animal: it's guaranteed to be absolutely true. Concealment is hiding a material fact. For most applications, you're dealing with representations.

Question 10

Which of the following is NOT one of the four essential elements of a valid contract?

Why

The four elements are agreement (offer and acceptance), consideration, competent parties, and legal purpose. A notarized signature isn't on the list, so it's the odd one out. Consideration, by the way, is what each side brings to the table: the insured's premium and the insurer's promise to pay.

2 Accident & Health Insurance Basics

Question 1

Disability income insurance is designed primarily to do what?

Why

Disability income coverage doesn't pay medical bills; it replaces a paycheck. When illness or injury keeps you from working, it provides periodic income (usually a percentage of your earnings) so the bills at home still get paid. Hook: disability income protects the paycheck, not the medical bill.

Question 2

How are disability income benefits typically paid?

Why

Disability income is paid as a stream of periodic payments (usually monthly) for as long as the qualifying disability lasts, up to the policy's benefit period. It functions like a substitute paycheck rather than a one-time payout. Hook: think of it as a replacement salary that keeps coming while you can't work.

Question 3

Which type of coverage insures a group of people who are not individually named, such as passengers on an airline or students on a field trip?

Why

Blanket coverage protects a constantly changing group whose members aren't named individually, like airline passengers, campers, or a sports team. You're covered simply because you belong to the defined group during the covered activity. Hook: a blanket covers whoever happens to be under it, no individual names required.

Question 4

Compared with individual health insurance, group health coverage generally does what regarding underwriting?

Why

Group coverage is underwritten on the group as a whole, its size, industry, and demographics, rather than screening each person's health. That's why an employee can usually enroll without a medical exam during the eligibility window. Hook: group underwriting looks at the group, not each individual's medical history.

Question 5

Under a noncancelable health policy, the insurer generally may do which of the following until the stated age?

Why

Noncancelable is the strongest renewal guarantee for the insured: the insurer can't cancel, can't refuse renewal, and can't raise the premium beyond what the policy already states, all the way to the stated age. Hook: noncancelable locks everything, coverage and premium alike, in the insured's favor.

Question 6

What is the key difference between a noncancelable policy and a guaranteed renewable policy?

Why

Both require the insurer to keep renewing to a stated age, so neither can drop the insured for health reasons. The difference is price: noncancelable freezes the premium too, while guaranteed renewable lets the insurer raise rates for an entire class. Hook: both guarantee the coverage; only noncancelable also guarantees the premium.

Question 7

Coinsurance in a health policy refers to what?

Why

Coinsurance is the sharing percentage that applies once the deductible is met; an 80/20 plan means the insurer pays 80% and the insured pays 20% of covered charges. It keeps the insured with some skin in the game. Hook: coinsurance is the percentage you and the insurer split after the deductible.

Question 8

A copayment under a health plan is best described as what?

Why

A copayment is a set flat fee, say $25 for an office visit or $15 for a prescription, that the insured pays at the point of service. Unlike coinsurance, it doesn't change with the size of the bill. Hook: a copay is a fixed dollar ticket price per service, not a percentage.

Question 9

Why do health insurers build deductibles and coinsurance into policies?

Why

Cost-sharing features like deductibles and coinsurance keep the insured financially involved, which both spreads the cost and discourages overusing services for minor issues. That helps hold premiums down for everyone. Hook: cost-sharing gives the insured skin in the game, curbing overuse and helping control premiums.

Question 10

In underwriting, which set of terms describes how applicants are classified by risk?

Why

Underwriters sort applicants into risk classes, commonly preferred (better than average health, lowest rates), standard (average), and substandard or rated (higher risk and higher premium), with some applicants declined outright. Hook: preferred, standard, substandard, the ladder running from lowest risk and price to highest.

3 Individual A&H Policy Provisions

Question 1

Under the entire contract; changes provision, who has the authority to change the terms of a health policy?

Why

Changes to the contract are valid only when approved in writing by an executive officer of the insurer, and even then they must be noted on or attached to the policy. An agent has no power to waive or alter provisions. Hook: only a company officer can change the deal, never the agent at your kitchen table.

Question 2

Under the reinstatement provision, if a lapsed policy's reinstatement application is neither approved nor declined, the policy is automatically reinstated after how many days?

Why

If the insurer requires an application for reinstatement and then neither approves it nor rejects it by sending written notice, the policy is automatically reinstated on the 45th day after the application date. Hook: insurer silence for 45 days equals automatic reinstatement.

Question 3

Under the optional unpaid premium provision, what may an insurer do when a claim is payable and a premium is overdue?

Why

The unpaid premium provision lets the insurer simply subtract any premium then due and unpaid from the benefits it pays out, rather than denying the claim. Hook: the insurer just nets the overdue premium out of the claim check.

Question 4

Under the proof of loss provision, the insured must generally submit proof of loss within how many days of a loss?

Why

Proof of loss, the documentation supporting the claim, must be furnished within 90 days after the loss, or as soon as reasonably possible. It's a longer window than the 20-day notice because it requires more detail. Hook: 20 days to notify, 90 days to prove.

Question 5

Under the payment of claims provision, to whom are health insurance benefits generally paid?

Why

Benefits are generally paid to the insured, while any death benefit (such as under AD&D) goes to the named beneficiary, or to the insured's estate if none is named. Hook: living benefits to the insured, death benefits to the beneficiary.

Question 6

The facility of payment clause within the payment of claims provision allows the insurer to do what?

Why

The facility of payment clause lets the insurer pay up to a stated amount to a relative or whoever appears equitably entitled, which is useful when there's no living beneficiary or the insured is deceased or incapacitated. It gives the insurer a practical way to settle small amounts without a court. Hook: facility of payment is the insurer's shortcut to pay someone fairly entitled when no beneficiary fits.

Question 7

Under the legal actions provision, how soon after submitting proof of loss may the insured bring a lawsuit against the insurer?

Why

The insured must wait at least 60 days after giving proof of loss before suing, which gives the insurer time to review and pay the claim. Hook: 60 days is the cooling-off floor before any lawsuit can start.

Question 8

Under the change of beneficiary provision, the policyowner may change the beneficiary at any time unless what is true?

Why

The owner keeps the right to change the beneficiary unless they've named an irrevocable beneficiary, in which case the beneficiary's written consent is required. Hook: revocable means change freely, irrevocable means you need the beneficiary's okay.

Question 9

Under the change of occupation provision, if an insured switches to a less hazardous occupation, the insurer will generally do what?

Why

Move to safer work and the insurer reduces the premium to the lower-risk rate, refunding the excess premium already paid for the period. The change works in the insured's favor here. Hook: a safer job means a lower premium and money back.

Question 10

A probationary (waiting) period in a health policy is best described as what?

Why

A probationary period is an initial stretch, often the first 15 to 30 days after the policy starts, during which sickness-related losses aren't yet covered; it keeps someone from buying a policy after symptoms appear. Accident coverage usually begins right away. Hook: a short waiting period at the start before sickness benefits kick in.

4 Disability Income & Related Insurance

Question 1

Under an "own occupation" (own occ) definition of total disability, the insured is considered totally disabled when they cannot do what?

Why

The own-occupation definition pays benefits when the insured can't perform the main duties of their specific occupation, even if they could work in some other field. It's the more generous definition because it judges disability against your actual career. Hook: own occ asks only whether you can do your own job.

Question 2

An "any occupation" (any occ) definition of total disability is generally satisfied only when the insured cannot do what?

Why

The any-occupation definition is stricter and more insurer-friendly: you're considered totally disabled only if you can't work in any job that fits your background. It's harder to qualify for benefits than under own occ. Hook: any occ asks whether you can do any suitable job, not just your old one.

Question 3

A residual disability benefit pays an amount based on what?

Why

Residual disability coverage pays a partial benefit scaled to your loss of income, so if a disability cuts your earnings by 40%, you collect roughly 40% of the total disability benefit. It bridges the gap when you can work but not at full capacity. Hook: residual benefits track your percentage of lost income.

Question 4

Under a recurrent disability provision, if an insured returns to work and then becomes disabled again from the same cause within the stated period, the second disability is treated how?

Why

The recurrent disability provision says that a relapse from the same cause within a set time (often six months) counts as a continuation of the prior claim, so the insured doesn't have to satisfy a brand-new elimination period. A later, unrelated disability would start fresh. Hook: same cause, soon after, means it picks up where it left off, no new waiting period.

Question 5

Under a typical waiver of premium provision in a disability income policy, what happens once the insured has been disabled for the required time (often 90 days)?

Why

Once a disability lasts past the waiver's waiting period (commonly 90 days), the insurer waives further premiums for as long as the disability continues, and often refunds any premiums paid during the waiting period. The policy stays fully in force. Hook: stay disabled long enough and the insurer stops charging premiums, sometimes back to day one.

Question 6

Why do disability income policies generally limit benefits to a percentage of the insured's income rather than 100%?

Why

Insurers cap benefits below full income (and below what you'd net after taxes, since the benefits are often tax-free) so the insured always has a financial reason to recover and return to work. Paying 100% could encourage staying disabled, known as malingering. Hook: benefits stop short of full pay so working still beats collecting.

Question 7

A disability income policy with a Social Security offset (integration) provision does what?

Why

An integrated, or offset, plan coordinates with Social Security disability so the combined payment doesn't exceed the target percentage of income; the policy reduces its benefit (dollar-for-dollar or partially) by what Social Security pays. It controls overinsurance and lowers the premium. Hook: the policy's benefit shrinks by whatever Social Security kicks in.

Question 8

A return of premium rider on a disability income policy provides what?

Why

A return of premium rider refunds part of the premiums paid, less any claims, after a stated number of years, rewarding insureds who stay healthy. It raises the premium in exchange for that potential refund. Hook: stay claim-free and the insurer hands back a chunk of your premiums.

Question 9

Key person disability insurance is designed to do what for a business?

Why

Key person DI pays the business a benefit when an essential employee is disabled, helping cover lost productivity and the cost of recruiting or training a replacement. The business owns the policy and receives the benefit. Hook: it cushions the company when a key player can't work, much like key person life does at death.

Question 10

Workers' compensation disability benefits cover injuries and illnesses that are what?

Why

Workers' compensation is an occupational-only program: it pays for work-related injuries and illnesses regardless of fault, but covers nothing that happens off the job. That's why private and group DI often coordinate around it. Hook: workers' comp covers on-the-job harm only.

5 Medical Plans

Question 1

Basic medical expense (first-dollar) coverage is generally characterized by what?

Why

Basic medical expense plans (hospital, surgical, and physician expense) typically pay from the first dollar with little or no deductible, but they cap benefits at modest limits. They cover routine costs well but can run out fast for a catastrophic claim. Hook: basic plans pay early but shallow, low deductible and low ceiling.

Question 2

Under a usual, customary, and reasonable (UCR) approach, a surgical claim is generally paid based on what?

Why

UCR ties the allowable benefit to what providers in the same area normally charge for that procedure, rather than to a flat schedule. A charge far above the local norm may not be fully covered. Hook: UCR pays the going local rate, not just any billed amount.

Question 3

A comprehensive major medical plan is best described as what?

Why

Comprehensive major medical merges basic and major medical into one policy, so a single deductible and coinsurance structure covers everything from routine care up through catastrophic claims. Hook: comprehensive equals basic plus major rolled into one plan with one deductible.

Question 4

A major medical plan has an 80/20 coinsurance feature and a $2,000 out-of-pocket maximum (in addition to the deductible). Once the insured's coinsurance payments reach $2,000 for the year, what happens?

Why

The out-of-pocket maximum (stop-loss) caps the insured's coinsurance share. Once the insured has paid $2,000 in coinsurance, the plan switches to paying 100% of additional covered charges for the rest of the year, protecting against a catastrophic bill. Hook: hit the out-of-pocket max and your 20% share drops to 0%.

Question 5

With a few exceptions such as emergencies, an HMO generally covers services only when they are provided by whom?

Why

HMOs require members to use the plan's network of providers (outside of true emergencies), which is how they control cost and coordinate care. Go outside the network and the service generally isn't covered. Hook: HMO equals in-network only, except for emergencies.

Question 6

In a traditional HMO, the primary care physician (PCP) acts as a gatekeeper, meaning the PCP does what?

Why

The gatekeeper PCP manages each member's care and must provide a referral before the member can see a specialist, which keeps utilization, and cost, under control. Hook: in an HMO, you go through the gatekeeper PCP to reach a specialist.

Question 7

Managed care plans such as HMOs and PPOs primarily aim to do what?

Why

The whole point of managed care is to rein in costs and coordinate care, using networks, gatekeepers, and utilization review, while still aiming to maintain quality. It's a deliberate contrast to open-ended fee-for-service. Hook: managed care manages both the dollars and the care.

Question 8

A health savings account (HSA) may generally be established only by someone who is enrolled in what?

Why

HSAs are tied to HDHPs by law: you must be covered by a qualified high deductible health plan (and have no disqualifying coverage) to contribute. The high deductible is what the HSA is meant to help fund. Hook: no HDHP, no HSA, they're a required pair.

Question 9

A traditional flexible spending account (FSA) is generally characterized by what?

Why

An FSA lets an employee set aside pre-tax salary for medical costs, but it traditionally follows a use-it-or-lose-it rule: money not spent by the plan year's end (subject to limited grace or carryover options) is forfeited. Hook: an FSA is pre-tax but use-it-or-lose-it, so don't overfund it.

Question 10

Consumer-directed health plans (such as HDHPs paired with HSAs) are designed mainly to do what?

Why

Consumer-directed plans put more decision-making, and more of the early cost, in the consumer's hands, pairing a high deductible with a tax-favored account so people shop more carefully for care. Hook: consumer-directed means you steer the spending, with skin in the game.

6 Group Health Insurance

Question 1

In a group health plan, the individual covered members receive what document evidencing their coverage?

Why

The insurer issues one master contract to the group sponsor, and each covered member gets a certificate of coverage summarizing their benefits and rights. The members don't hold individual policies. Hook: the sponsor gets the master contract, the members get certificates.

Question 2

To be eligible for group insurance, a group must generally have been formed for what reason?

Why

A valid insurable group must exist for some primary reason other than getting insurance, such as an employer, a union, or a trade association, so the coverage is incidental and the group isn't just assembled to game the system. Hook: the group has to exist first for another reason, with insurance as a perk, not the point.

Question 3

Federal COBRA continuation rights generally apply to employers with at least how many employees?

Why

COBRA applies to group health plans of employers with 20 or more employees. Smaller employers may be subject to state mini-COBRA laws instead. Hook: 20 employees is the federal COBRA threshold.

Question 4

Under COBRA, who generally pays the premium for the continued coverage?

Why

The person continuing coverage pays the full premium, up to 102% of the group rate, with the extra 2% covering administrative cost. COBRA preserves access to the group plan, but not the employer's subsidy. Hook: you keep the group coverage but pay it all yourself, plus a 2% admin add-on.

Question 5

To exercise the group conversion privilege, the departing insured generally must apply within what timeframe after group coverage ends?

Why

Conversion must be requested within a short window after group coverage ends, commonly 31 days. Miss that window and the right to convert without evidence of insurability is lost. Hook: act fast, the conversion window is short, often about 31 days.

Question 6

Under HIPAA, prior health coverage that can reduce a new plan's pre-existing condition exclusion period is known as what?

Why

Creditable coverage is prior, generally continuous, health coverage that gets credited against any pre-existing condition waiting period a new plan might impose, shortening or eliminating it. Hook: creditable coverage is the prior coverage you get credit for when you switch plans.

Question 7

When an employee is covered as an employee under their own group plan and as a dependent under a spouse's plan, coordination of benefits determines what?

Why

Coordination of benefits assigns one plan as primary (pays first) and the other as secondary (pays the balance up to allowable limits) so the total paid doesn't exceed the actual expense. Your own employer plan is usually primary for you. Hook: COB just sorts out who pays first and who pays the rest.

Question 8

Under the common birthday rule for coordinating coverage on a dependent child, the primary plan is the one belonging to the parent whose birthday does what?

Why

The birthday rule makes the plan of the parent whose birthday comes first in the calendar year (earliest month and day, not earliest birth year) the primary plan for a dependent child. It's a simple tiebreaker, not based on who is older. Hook: the earlier birthday in the year means the primary plan for the kids.

Question 9

For an active employee age 65 or older covered by both a large employer's group plan and Medicare, which generally pays first?

Why

For active employees age 65 and older at larger employers, the group health plan is primary and Medicare is secondary, under the Medicare Secondary Payer rules. The retiree situation can differ. Hook: still working at a big employer means the group plan leads and Medicare follows.

Question 10

The most common type of insurable group is which of the following?

Why

The single-employer, employer-employee group is by far the most common form of group coverage, with the employer as sponsor and policyholder. Other valid groups include associations, unions, and multiple-employer arrangements. Hook: employer-employee is the everyday group plan most people picture.

7 Dental & Vision Insurance

Question 1

A dental HMO (DHMO) generally pays participating dentists how?

Why

Like a medical HMO, a DHMO pays network dentists a capitation fee, a set amount per member assigned to them regardless of services used, and members generally must use network dentists. It emphasizes prepaid, managed dental care. Hook: a DHMO pays dentists per member (capitation), not per procedure.

Question 2

In a typical dental plan, preventive and diagnostic services such as cleanings, exams, and x-rays are usually covered at what level?

Why

Plans usually cover preventive and diagnostic care at or near 100% with no deductible, because catching problems early is cheaper than treating them later. It's the same prevention logic as in managed medical care. Hook: prevention is usually free (100%, no deductible) because it saves the plan money down the road.

Question 3

Basic restorative dental services such as fillings and simple extractions are commonly covered at roughly what coinsurance level?

Why

Basic restorative procedures typically sit in the middle tier, often paid at around 80%, with the patient covering the remaining 20% after any deductible. Hook: basic care lands in the middle, often about 80% covered.

Question 4

Orthodontia coverage in a dental plan is typically characterized by what?

Why

Orthodontia is usually a distinct, optional benefit with its own lifetime maximum (not an annual one) and a lower coinsurance percentage, and it's frequently limited to dependent children. Hook: ortho stands apart, with its own lifetime cap, lower coverage, and often kids only.

Question 5

The annual maximum benefit in a dental plan refers to what?

Why

The annual (calendar-year) maximum is the ceiling on what the plan pays per covered person each year; once reached, the patient pays the rest until the maximum resets the following year. Dental annual maximums are often modest. Hook: the annual max is the plan's yearly payout ceiling per person.

Question 6

Orthodontia benefits are usually subject to what kind of limit?

Why

Because orthodontic treatment is a one-time, multi-year course, plans cap it with a separate lifetime maximum rather than an annual one. Once that lifetime amount is used, ortho benefits end. Hook: ortho is capped for life, not per year.

Question 7

Under a least expensive alternative treatment (alternate benefit) provision, how does the plan pay when more than one acceptable treatment exists?

Why

The alternate benefit (LEAT) provision lets the plan calculate its payment based on the cheapest treatment that would adequately do the job. If the patient chooses a pricier option, they pay the difference. Hook: the plan pays for the cheapest adequate fix; upgrades are on the patient.

Question 8

A routine vision care plan typically provides benefits for which of the following?

Why

Routine vision coverage handles the everyday eye-care items, periodic exams plus eyewear like lenses, frames, and contacts, usually through allowances and frequency limits. Disease and surgery fall under medical coverage instead. Hook: routine vision means exams and eyewear, not eye disease or surgery.

Question 9

Vision plan benefits are commonly divided into which two components?

Why

Vision coverage usually separates the exam (the professional service) from the materials (lenses, frames, contacts), each with its own copay, allowance, or frequency rule. Hook: vision splits into the exam and the eyewear materials.

Question 10

Like dental coverage, routine vision coverage is most often offered how?

Why

Routine vision, like dental, is usually a standalone elective benefit with its own premium and rules, rather than being built into major medical. Hook: vision, like dental, typically stands alone as its own benefit.

8 Senior & Special Needs Health Insurance

Question 1

Besides reaching age 65, a person may qualify for Medicare in which situation?

Why

People under 65 can get Medicare if they've received Social Security disability benefits for 24 months, and certain conditions (end-stage renal disease, ALS) qualify sooner. Hook: long-term disability, not just age 65, can open the Medicare door.

Question 2

Original Medicare consists of which two parts?

Why

Original Medicare is the combination of Part A (hospital insurance) and Part B (medical insurance). Parts C and D are the private add-on options (Advantage and prescription drugs). Hook: Original Medicare equals A plus B, hospital plus medical.

Question 3

The Initial Enrollment Period for Medicare is generally how long, centered on the person's 65th birthday month?

Why

The Initial Enrollment Period spans 7 months: the 3 months before your 65th-birthday month, that month itself, and the 3 months after. Enrolling on time avoids late penalties. Hook: a 7-month window, three before, the month of, and three after your 65th.

Question 4

Medicare Part A measures hospital and skilled nursing benefits using what?

Why

Part A uses benefit periods: one begins when you're admitted and ends after you've been out of a hospital or skilled nursing facility for 60 days in a row. A new stay after that starts a new benefit period (and a new deductible). Hook: a Part A benefit period resets only after 60 days fully out of care.

Question 5

Medicare Part B primarily covers which of the following?

Why

Part B is medical insurance: it covers doctor visits, outpatient services, preventive care, lab tests, and durable medical equipment like wheelchairs. Inpatient hospital care is Part A. Hook: Part B is the doctor-and-outpatient side of Medicare.

Question 6

After the annual Part B deductible is met, Medicare Part B generally pays what share of the approved amount for covered services?

Why

Once the yearly Part B deductible is satisfied, Medicare typically pays 80% of the approved amount and the beneficiary pays the remaining 20% coinsurance. That open-ended 20% is a common reason people add a Medicare Supplement. Hook: Part B pays 80, you pay 20, with no built-in cap on your share.

Question 7

Medicare Part C (Medicare Advantage) is best described as what?

Why

Medicare Advantage (Part C) lets beneficiaries get their Medicare benefits through a private plan, often an HMO or PPO, that combines Part A and Part B (and frequently Part D drug coverage and extras) in one package. It's an alternative to Original Medicare, not a supplement to it. Hook: Part C is Medicare delivered through a private all-in-one plan.

Question 8

Medicare Part D prescription drug coverage is provided how?

Why

Part D plans are offered by private insurers approved by Medicare, and enrollment is voluntary (with a possible late penalty for delaying). Beneficiaries choose a plan that fits their medications. Hook: Part D is private, optional drug coverage you sign up for.

Question 9

Medicare Supplement policies are standardized, meaning what?

Why

Medigap plans are standardized into lettered plans (Plan A, Plan G, Plan N, and so on); a given lettered plan offers identical core benefits no matter which insurer sells it, so consumers can compare on price and service. Hook: same letter equals same benefits, whoever sells it.

Question 10

The Medicare Supplement open enrollment period is a 6-month window that begins when the applicant is what?

Why

The Medigap open enrollment period runs for 6 months starting when the person is 65 or older and enrolled in Part B. During this window, coverage is guaranteed-issue: the insurer can't deny coverage or charge more for health reasons. Hook: 65 plus Part B starts a 6-month guaranteed-issue Medigap window.

9 Federal Tax Considerations — Health Insurance

Question 1

Premiums an individual pays for their own personal health insurance are generally treated how for federal income tax?

Why

Personal health insurance premiums generally aren't deductible, though they may count toward the itemized medical expense deduction if total medical costs clear the AGI threshold. Hook: personal health premiums usually get no deduction, paid with after-tax dollars.

Question 2

An insured deducts medical expenses on their tax return and is later reimbursed by their health insurer for those same expenses. What is the general tax result?

Why

You can't get a tax benefit twice for the same dollar. If you deducted a medical expense and the insurer later reimburses it, that reimbursed amount can become taxable to undo the earlier deduction. Hook: no double-dipping, deduct and then get reimbursed, and the reimbursement is pulled back into income.

Question 3

Premiums an employer pays for a group health (medical expense) plan covering employees are generally treated how for the employer?

Why

Employer-paid group health premiums are a deductible business expense, a major reason employers offer health benefits. Hook: the employer writes off group health premiums as a business cost.

Question 4

Medical expense benefits an employee receives under an employer group health plan are generally what?

Why

Just like individual medical expense benefits, group medical benefits reimburse care and aren't treated as income, so they're tax-free to the employee. Hook: group medical benefits reimburse bills, so they're tax-free.

Question 5

When an employer pays group disability income premiums, those premiums are generally treated how for the employee at the time they are paid?

Why

The employer's premium payments aren't taxed to the employee when paid; the tax is deferred to the benefit stage if a claim arises. Hook: the premium isn't taxed now, the benefit is taxed later instead.

Question 6

The key factor that determines whether group disability income benefits are taxable to the employee is what?

Why

Taxability of disability benefits turns on how the premiums were funded: pre-tax employer dollars lead to taxable benefits, after-tax employee dollars lead to tax-free benefits. Hook: follow the premium dollars, pre-tax in equals taxable out.

Question 7

An employee receives disability benefits from a plan whose premiums the employer paid entirely and deducted. How should the employee treat those benefits?

Why

Since the employer funded and deducted all the premiums and the employee was never taxed on them, the full benefit is taxable income to the employee. Hook: fully employer-funded DI means a fully taxable benefit.

Question 8

Premiums for a disability buy-sell policy are generally treated how?

Why

Disability buy-sell premiums are not deductible, much like a life insurance buy-sell, and the benefits used to fund the buyout are received income-tax-free. Hook: buy-sell premiums aren't deductible, but the buyout funds come tax-free.

Question 9

A health savings account (HSA) is sometimes called triple tax-advantaged because of which combination?

Why

The HSA's triple advantage is contributions that are deductible or pre-tax, earnings that grow tax-free, and withdrawals that are tax-free when used for qualified medical expenses. Few accounts offer all three. Hook: HSA equals a tax break going in, growing, and coming out, all three.

Question 10

Reimbursements an employee receives from an employer-funded health reimbursement arrangement (HRA) for qualified medical expenses are generally treated how?

Why

HRA reimbursements for qualified medical expenses are tax-free to the employee, and the employer funds and deducts the arrangement, another tax-favored health benefit. Hook: employer-funded HRA reimbursements reach the employee tax-free.

The rest of the Kansas Health system

Tap any tool to see how it works.