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Free Maine Life, Accident & Health Practice Questions

Real questions in the style of the Maine Life, Accident & Health licensing exam, pulled straight from the TESTivity course, each with a plain-English explanation. Start with the Maine-specific rules below, then work the rest, and unlock the full simulator when you're ready to drill.

Questions on exam136
Passing score70 scaled
Test providerPearson VUE
Time limitNot published
Pass rate63%

That's right — 37% of test-takers do not pass the Maine Life, Accident & Health exam on their first attempt. Make sure you're part of the 63% who do.

First-time pass rate: 63% · Source: NAIC, 2024 (most recent available statistics)

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1 Insurance Basics & Foundational Concepts

Question 1

A hazard is best defined as:

Why

A hazard doesn't cause the loss itself; it just makes a loss more likely or more severe. Icy steps, frayed wiring, a careless attitude: none of those start the fire or the fall, but they tip the odds. Causes of loss are perils; hazards just stack the deck.

Question 2

Which of the following is the best example of a moral hazard?

Why

Moral hazard equals dishonesty. It's the risk that someone deliberately causes or exaggerates a loss to profit, like torching a failing business for the payout. Don't mix it up with morale hazard (carelessness, choice B) or physical hazard (the actual physical conditions in A and D).

Question 3

Cans of gasoline stored in a residential garage are an example of a:

Why

A physical hazard is a tangible condition that increases the likelihood or severity of a loss: gasoline in the garage, a slippery floor, frayed wiring. You can see or touch it. If it's an attitude problem it's morale; if it's dishonesty it's moral; if it's a physical thing sitting there raising the odds, it's physical.

Question 4

Adverse selection refers to the tendency of:

Why

Adverse selection is the insurer's headache: the people most likely to have a loss are also the most eager to buy and keep coverage. If underwriting didn't push back, the risk pool would fill up with bad risks and the math would collapse. It's exactly why underwriting and exclusions exist.

Question 5

The primary purpose of reinsurance is to:

Why

Reinsurance is insurance for insurance companies. The original insurer (the ceding company) hands off part of its risk to a reinsurer so one giant loss doesn't sink it. Individuals never deal with reinsurers directly; it all happens behind the scenes between carriers.

Question 6

For the law of large numbers to work effectively, the exposures in a group should be:

Why

The law of large numbers needs lots of similar exposures to make predictions reliable. A big pool of comparable homes lets the insurer forecast losses; a handful of wildly different ones doesn't. And concentrating them all in one spot is actually bad: one hurricane could wipe out the whole pool at once.

Question 7

A policy that pays dividends to its policyholders is referred to as a:

Why

Participating policies 'participate' in the insurer's profits by paying policy dividends, and are typically issued by mutual companies. Nonparticipating policies don't pay dividends and are typically issued by stock companies. The word 'participate' is your tell.

Question 8

An insurance broker legally represents the:

Why

A broker works for the insured, shopping the market on the client's behalf, while an agent works for the insurer. Same exam, different masters: keep them straight. Broker equals the buyer's side; agent equals the company's side.

Question 9

Because an insurance policy is drafted by the insurer and offered to the applicant on a 'take it or leave it' basis, it is classified as a contract of:

Why

A contract of adhesion is written by one party (the insurer) and accepted as-is by the other, with no line-by-line negotiating. The practical kicker: because the insured didn't get to write it, any ambiguity is interpreted in the insured's favor. That's a courtroom rule worth knowing.

Question 10

The voluntary giving up of a known legal right is known as a:

Why

A waiver is voluntarily surrendering a known right, say, an insurer choosing not to enforce a policy condition. Estoppel is the follow-on: once you've waived something, you can be legally prevented (estopped) from later trying to enforce it. Waiver is the giving up; estoppel is being held to it.

2 Life Insurance Basics

Question 1

A buy-sell agreement funded with life insurance is primarily designed to:

Why

A buy-sell agreement is a pre-arranged deal: when an owner dies, the surviving owners (or the business) buy out the deceased's share, and life insurance provides the cash to fund the purchase. It keeps the business in the right hands and gives the deceased owner's family a fair payout without a fire sale.

Question 2

Under an executive bonus (Section 162) plan, the life insurance policy is owned by:

Why

In a Section 162 executive bonus plan, the employer pays the premium as a bonus, but the executive owns the policy and names the beneficiary. The bonus is tax-deductible to the employer and taxable income to the executive. The big perk: the employee keeps the policy even if they leave.

Question 3

The needs approach to calculating life insurance focuses on:

Why

The needs approach tallies up the actual bills the family faces if the insured dies: final expenses, paying off the mortgage, an income fund for survivors, kids' education, an emergency cushion. Add them up, subtract existing resources, and the gap is how much coverage is needed.

Question 4

When calculating life insurance needs, an agent should subtract which of the following from the total need?

Why

You don't insure what's already covered. After totaling the family's needs, subtract the resources they already have: savings, investments, existing life insurance, Social Security survivor benefits. What's left is the true coverage gap the new policy should fill.

Question 5

Mortality tables used by life insurers, such as the Commissioners Standard Ordinary (CSO) table, show:

Why

A mortality table is the actuary's crystal ball: for each age, it shows how many people out of 1,000 are expected to die that year. That's how insurers price the mortality piece of the premium. The CSO table is the standard reference used in the U.S.

Question 6

An applicant pays the initial premium with the application and receives a conditional receipt. Coverage will generally become effective:

Why

A conditional receipt offers coverage back to the application or exam date, but only on the condition that the applicant turns out to be insurable as applied. If they qualify, they're covered from that earlier date, even if they die before the policy is formally issued. The key word is conditional.

Question 7

An agent completing a life insurance application should:

Why

The application is the foundation of the contract, so the agent records what the applicant actually says, accurately and completely, then has the applicant review and sign it. Guessing at answers, signing for someone, or hiding bad health facts isn't just sloppy, it's misrepresentation, and it can void the policy or cost the agent their license.

Question 8

The Medical Information Bureau (MIB) assists insurers primarily by:

Why

The MIB is a shared database where member insurers post coded information about applicants' health-related findings. If someone fails to disclose a condition on a new application, the MIB can flag the discrepancy. It's a fraud-and-omission check, not a claims payer or rate setter.

Question 9

An insurer wants detailed information about an applicant's existing medical condition from the doctor who treated it. The insurer would request a(n):

Why

An attending physician's statement (APS) comes from the doctor who actually treated the applicant, used when the application or exam flags something needing more detail. An inspection report covers lifestyle and finances; an MVR covers driving. For specific medical history, it's the APS.

Question 10

Under the Fair Credit Reporting Act, if an insurer uses a consumer report to decline or rate an applicant, the insurer must:

Why

The Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA) protects consumers' privacy. If information from a consumer report leads to an adverse decision (declining or rating up), the insurer must tell the applicant and identify the reporting agency, so the applicant can check and dispute it. Transparency is the whole point.

3 Life Insurance Policies

Question 1

Decreasing term insurance is most commonly used to:

Why

With decreasing term, the death benefit shrinks over the term while the premium stays level, which makes it a natural fit for a mortgage: as you pay the loan down, you need less coverage to pay it off. It's cheaper than level term because the insurer's risk drops each year.

Question 2

Under a level term policy, which of the following remains constant during the term?

Why

Level term keeps both the death benefit and the premium flat for the whole term, the most common and predictable flavor. Contrast that with decreasing term (benefit drops, premium level) and increasing term (benefit rises). 'Level' means nothing moves while the term runs.

Question 3

Which of the following is a feature of whole life insurance?

Why

Whole life is the workhorse of permanent insurance: lifelong coverage, level premiums that never change, a guaranteed death benefit, and guaranteed cash value that builds over time. You pay more than term, but you get permanence plus a savings element with guarantees attached.

Question 4

The cash value in a whole life policy grows on a:

Why

Cash value grows tax-deferred: you don't pay taxes on the gains as they accumulate inside the policy. Tax can come into play later if you surrender for more than your basis, but year to year, that internal growth isn't taxed. Deferred, not necessarily tax-free.

Question 5

A single premium whole life policy is funded by:

Why

Single premium whole life is bought with one big upfront payment, and the policy is immediately paid up for life with substantial cash value from day one. It's often used as a wealth-transfer or estate tool. Heads up: large single-premium policies can become MECs, which changes the tax treatment.

Question 6

Under Universal Life Option B (increasing death benefit), the death benefit equals:

Why

UL gives two death-benefit flavors. Option A (level) keeps the death benefit flat, so as cash value grows the pure-insurance portion shrinks. Option B (increasing) pays the face amount plus the cash value, so the total benefit grows. Option B costs more because the insurer's at-risk amount stays higher.

Question 7

The cash value of a traditional universal life policy earns interest based on:

Why

A standard (fixed) UL credits the cash value at the insurer's current declared interest rate, which floats with conditions, but it can't drop below a guaranteed minimum floor stated in the policy. So you get upside when rates are good and a safety net when they're not.

Question 8

To sell variable life insurance, a producer must hold:

Why

Because variable products are regulated as securities, selling them takes a dual qualification: a state life insurance license plus a FINRA securities registration. A plain life license alone isn't enough. The investment component is what triggers the securities rules.

Question 9

Variable universal life (VUL) combines the flexible premiums of universal life with:

Why

VUL is the mashup: UL's flexible premiums and adjustable death benefit, plus variable life's investment choice, where the owner directs cash value into subaccounts and bears the market risk. Maximum flexibility and maximum exposure. It's also a security, so it needs the dual license.

Question 10

In group life insurance, the contract is issued to the:

Why

Group life works off a single master contract issued to the employer or sponsoring organization. Individual members don't get their own policy, they get a certificate of coverage showing they're insured under the group plan. One contract, many certificate holders.

4 Life Insurance Provisions, Options & Riders

Question 1

A lapsed policy is being reinstated. Which of the following is the insurer typically allowed to require?

Why

Reinstatement lets an owner revive a lapsed policy instead of buying a new one, which matters because the old policy keeps its original (lower) issue-age premium. The trade-off: the insurer can ask for evidence of insurability (you still have to be insurable) plus the back premiums with interest. Remember it as prove you're healthy and catch up on what you owe. A new two-year contestable period usually starts on the reinstated coverage.

Question 2

Two and a half years after a policy was issued, the insurer discovers the insured made a material misrepresentation on the application. Absent fraud, what can the insurer do?

Why

The incontestability clause says that once a policy has been in force for two years during the insured's lifetime, the company can no longer contest it over misstatements on the application. The point is to protect beneficiaries from a company digging up a minor error years later to dodge a claim. After two years the application is essentially locked, so honest mistakes can't sink the payout. (Outright fraud and nonpayment of premium are the usual exceptions.)

Question 3

Under the entire contract provision, what makes up the complete agreement between the insurer and the owner?

Why

The entire contract is the policy itself plus a copy of the application attached to it, and nothing else. The insurer can't incorporate by reference some outside document, like its bylaws or underwriting guidelines, to change your rights later, and the agent's side comments don't count. If it isn't in the policy or the attached application, it isn't part of the deal.

Question 4

An insured and the primary beneficiary die in the same car accident, and it can't be determined who died first. Under the Uniform Simultaneous Death Act, how are the proceeds handled?

Why

When the order of death can't be established, the law presumes the insured outlived the beneficiary. That treats the primary beneficiary as having died first, so the proceeds skip to the contingent beneficiary instead of getting tangled up in the primary's estate (and the extra probate and possible double taxation that comes with it). The rule keeps the money flowing to the next living beneficiary rather than a deceased one's estate.

Question 5

An owner uses the policy's cash value as a single premium to buy a smaller whole life policy with no further premiums due. Which nonforfeiture option is this?

Why

With reduced paid-up insurance, the cash value is applied as one lump-sum premium to purchase a fully paid-up policy of the same type, meaning permanent coverage that lasts for life, just at a lower face amount. You keep lifelong protection and never pay another premium. Read the name as a checklist: reduced (smaller face) plus paid-up (no more premiums), and it stays permanent.

Question 6

Policy dividends from a participating (par) whole life policy are best described as what?

Why

A participating policy can pay dividends, but they're not investment earnings, they're treated as a return of premium the company overcharged, which is exactly why they're generally not taxable. And because they depend on the insurer's actual experience (mortality, expenses, investment results), they're never guaranteed. A dividend is your own money coming back, not a profit the company promises.

Question 7

Which dividend option directly lowers the policyowner's out-of-pocket cost on the next premium?

Why

The reduction of premium option applies the dividend against the next premium due, so the owner simply pays the difference out of pocket. It's a practical choice for someone who wants to ease the ongoing cost of keeping the policy rather than build extra value. In plain terms, the dividend pays part of your bill for you.

Question 8

Under the interest-only settlement option, what does the beneficiary receive?

Why

With the interest-only option, the insurer keeps the death benefit (the principal) and pays the beneficiary just the interest it earns, leaving the full amount intact for later. It's useful when a beneficiary wants some income now but isn't ready to touch the lump sum. The principal stays parked; only the interest gets paid out.

Question 9

The guaranteed insurability rider gives the insured what right?

Why

The guaranteed insurability rider (GIR) lets the insured purchase extra coverage at specified ages or life events, like marriage or the birth of a child, with no new medical exam or evidence of insurability. It's pure gold for someone whose health later declines, because the price stays tied to the original good-health rating. It guarantees you remain insurable later, no matter how your health turns out.

Question 10

An accelerated death benefit (living needs) rider allows an insured to do what?

Why

An accelerated death benefit rider lets a terminally ill insured (often defined as having a limited life expectancy, such as 12 to 24 months) draw down a portion of their own death benefit while still living, to cover medical bills or simply ease their final months. Whatever is advanced is later subtracted from what the beneficiary receives. It lets you tap your own death benefit early when you need it most, and it's frequently offered at little or no extra cost.

5 Annuities

Question 1

An annuitant dies during the accumulation phase of a deferred annuity. Who typically receives the contract's value?

Why

If the annuitant dies before income payments begin, the accumulated value generally passes to the named beneficiary, much like a death benefit. The annuity doesn't simply disappear into the insurer's pocket. (Once payments have begun, what's left depends on which payout option was chosen.) Hook: die during the build-up phase, and the beneficiary collects what's been saved.

Question 2

Annuitization refers to what?

Why

Annuitization is the switch from saving to spending: the owner converts the accumulated value into a guaranteed income stream and chooses a payout option that sets how long, and to whom, payments run. Once you annuitize, you've generally traded the lump sum for the income. Hook: annuitize means turn the pile of money into a paycheck.

Question 3

A fixed annuity guarantees the owner what?

Why

A fixed annuity promises a guaranteed minimum interest rate during accumulation and a fixed, predictable income at payout. The insurer holds these funds in its general account and shoulders the investment risk. Hook: fixed means fixed, guaranteed numbers, prioritizing safety and predictability over upside.

Question 4

In a fixed annuity, who bears the investment risk?

Why

Because the insurer guarantees both the interest rate and the payout amount in a fixed annuity, the insurer, not the owner, carries the investment risk. If the company's general-account investments underperform, it still must honor the guarantee. Hook: the guarantees live with the insurer, so the risk does too.

Question 5

Which annuity payout option provides the largest periodic payment but stops entirely at the annuitant's death, leaving nothing to heirs?

Why

Life only (pure or straight life) pays the biggest check because the insurer's obligation ends the moment the annuitant dies, with no guarantees to anyone else. Live a long time and you come out ahead; die early and the balance stays with the insurer. Hook: fewest guarantees means the largest payment, and every guarantee you add shrinks the check.

Question 6

The exclusion ratio is used to determine what?

Why

Once an annuity is paying out, each payment is part return of your own after-tax contributions (the cost basis) and part earnings. The exclusion ratio is the fraction of each payment that is the tax-free return of basis; the rest is taxable. Hook: the exclusion ratio is what you get to exclude from tax, because you already paid tax on that money going in.

Question 7

For a partial withdrawal from a nonqualified deferred annuity, the IRS generally treats the money coming out as what?

Why

Nonqualified annuity withdrawals follow LIFO, last in first out, so the IRS treats the taxable earnings as coming out before your original principal. That means an early withdrawal is taxed as ordinary income until all the gain is used up. Hook: gains come out first and get taxed first, your own basis comes out last.

Question 8

Withdrawing taxable gain from an annuity before age 59 1/2 generally results in what?

Why

Like other tax-favored retirement vehicles, annuities carry an early-withdrawal penalty: pull taxable gain before age 59 1/2 and the IRS adds a 10% penalty on top of the ordinary income tax you already owe. It's meant to discourage using a retirement tool as a piggy bank. Hook: 59 1/2 is the magic age; touch the gains early and there's a 10% penalty.

Question 9

In a qualified annuity funded with pre-tax dollars, how are distributions generally taxed?

Why

A qualified annuity is funded with pre-tax money (think of one held inside a qualified retirement plan), so no tax has been paid on any of it yet. That means the whole distribution, contributions and earnings alike, is taxed as ordinary income. Contrast a nonqualified annuity, where only the earnings are taxable because the basis was after-tax. Hook: pre-tax in means fully taxable out.

Question 10

A Section 1035 exchange allows an owner to do what?

Why

A 1035 exchange lets an owner swap one contract for a better-suited one, life-to-life, life-to-annuity, or annuity-to-annuity, and carry the cost basis over without triggering tax on the gain. Note it's a one-way street: you can roll a life policy into an annuity, but not an annuity back into life insurance. Hook: 1035 is a tax-free trade-in for a comparable contract.

6 Federal Tax Considerations — Life, Annuities & Qualified Plans

Question 1

A beneficiary leaves the death benefit with the insurer under an interest-bearing settlement option. What is the tax treatment of the payments?

Why

The death benefit itself stays income-tax-free even when paid out over time, but any interest the insurer credits while holding the money is taxable income to the beneficiary. Hook: the original benefit is tax-free; the earnings on top of it are not, just like interest in any account.

Question 2

Are premiums on a personally owned life insurance policy generally deductible on the owner's federal income tax return?

Why

Premiums on personal life insurance are paid with after-tax dollars and are not deductible. The trade-off for that is the income-tax-free death benefit on the back end. Hook: no deduction going in, but a tax-free benefit coming out; the IRS won't let you have it both ways.

Question 3

In a Section 162 executive bonus plan, how are the premium payments treated?

Why

In a Section 162 bonus plan, the employer pays or reimburses the premium on a policy the executive personally owns and treats it as deductible compensation, while the executive reports that amount as taxable income, just like any bonus. The executive owns the policy and its cash value. Hook: it's simply a taxable bonus used to buy insurance, deductible to the employer, taxable to the executive.

Question 4

Under Section 79, how much employer-provided group term life insurance can an employee receive before the cost of the coverage becomes taxable income?

Why

An employee can receive up to $50,000 of employer-paid group term life with no income tax on the cost of that coverage. Above $50,000, the IRS imputes income based on a standard cost table. Hook: $50,000 is the magic line for tax-free group term life, and the cost of anything above it becomes taxable to the employee.

Question 5

During the accumulation phase of a nonqualified annuity, the earnings are what?

Why

Like the cash value in life insurance, annuity earnings grow tax-deferred during accumulation; you pay tax only when you take money out. Hook: no tax until you tap it, which is the core appeal of annuity accumulation.

Question 6

When a nonqualified annuity is annuitized, the exclusion ratio determines what?

Why

With a nonqualified annuity, you've already paid tax on the money you put in (your basis), so the exclusion ratio splits each income payment into a tax-free return of that basis and a taxable earnings portion. Hook: the exclusion ratio is the slice of each payment you exclude from tax because it's your own money coming back.

Question 7

A major tax advantage of a qualified retirement plan is that contributions are generally what?

Why

Qualified plans get favorable tax treatment: contributions are typically pre-tax (deductible to the employer and not currently taxed to the employee), and the money grows tax-deferred until distribution. That's the carrot for meeting the IRS and ERISA rules. Hook: pre-tax in, tax-deferred growth, taxed later, the standard qualified-plan bargain.

Question 8

Compared with a nonqualified plan, a qualified retirement plan must do what?

Why

A qualified plan must satisfy IRS and ERISA standards, including nondiscrimination rules that prevent it from favoring owners and highly paid employees, in exchange for its tax breaks. A nonqualified plan skips those rules but also skips the upfront tax advantages and can favor select employees. Hook: qualified plans earn tax breaks by following the rules; nonqualified plans trade the breaks for flexibility.

Question 9

A traditional 401(k) plan primarily lets an employee do what?

Why

A traditional 401(k) is a defined contribution plan in which the employee defers part of their pay pre-tax into the account, often boosted by an employer match, and it grows tax-deferred until withdrawal. Hook: a 401(k) is salary you set aside pre-tax today to be taxed when you draw it out later.

Question 10

Taking a taxable distribution from a traditional IRA or qualified plan before age 59 1/2 generally results in what, absent an exception?

Why

Pull money out of a traditional IRA or qualified plan before age 59 1/2 and, unless an exception applies, you owe a 10% early-withdrawal penalty in addition to the regular income tax. It's the same 59 1/2 line that applies to annuities. Hook: 59 1/2 is the universal early-access line; cross it early and there's a 10% penalty.

7 Accident & Health Insurance Basics

Question 1

For coverage purposes, a sickness under a health policy is typically defined as an illness that does what?

Why

Most health policies define a covered sickness as one that first appears (manifests) and is contracted while the coverage is in force. This wording is what lets insurers exclude pre-existing conditions that showed up before the policy started. Hook: a covered sickness has to show up on the policy's watch, not before it began.

Question 2

How are disability income benefits typically paid?

Why

Disability income is paid as a stream of periodic payments (usually monthly) for as long as the qualifying disability lasts, up to the policy's benefit period. It functions like a substitute paycheck rather than a one-time payout. Hook: think of it as a replacement salary that keeps coming while you can't work.

Question 3

An accidental death and dismemberment (AD&D) policy pays benefits for which of the following?

Why

AD&D pays only for losses caused by accidents: a death benefit if an accident is fatal, and a scheduled benefit for accidental dismemberment, such as losing a hand, foot, or eyesight. Death or loss from illness isn't covered. Hook: AD&D is strictly accident-driven; both the death and the dismemberment must come from an accident.

Question 4

Compared with individual health insurance, group health coverage generally does what regarding underwriting?

Why

Group coverage is underwritten on the group as a whole, its size, industry, and demographics, rather than screening each person's health. That's why an employee can usually enroll without a medical exam during the eligibility window. Hook: group underwriting looks at the group, not each individual's medical history.

Question 5

What is the key difference between a noncancelable policy and a guaranteed renewable policy?

Why

Both require the insurer to keep renewing to a stated age, so neither can drop the insured for health reasons. The difference is price: noncancelable freezes the premium too, while guaranteed renewable lets the insurer raise rates for an entire class. Hook: both guarantee the coverage; only noncancelable also guarantees the premium.

Question 6

A conditionally renewable health policy permits the insurer to decline renewal for which reason?

Why

Conditionally renewable sits in the middle: the insurer may refuse renewal, but only for specific non-health conditions spelled out in the contract, like an age limit or ending employment. It can't decline simply because the insured got sick. Hook: renewal depends on stated conditions, none of which is the insured's health.

Question 7

A copayment under a health plan is best described as what?

Why

A copayment is a set flat fee, say $25 for an office visit or $15 for a prescription, that the insured pays at the point of service. Unlike coinsurance, it doesn't change with the size of the bill. Hook: a copay is a fixed dollar ticket price per service, not a percentage.

Question 8

What is the primary source of information an insurer uses to underwrite a health insurance applicant?

Why

The application is the foundation of underwriting; it's where the applicant discloses health history, lifestyle, and other risk details. Other tools (the MIB, physician statements, consumer reports) are used to confirm or supplement what the application reveals. Hook: underwriting starts with the application, and everything else verifies it.

Question 9

The Medical Information Bureau (MIB) primarily helps insurers do what?

Why

The MIB is a nonprofit information exchange whose member insurers report coded medical and risk information. It flags inconsistencies, such as a condition disclosed on a prior application but omitted on a new one, but an insurer can't decline coverage based on MIB data alone. Hook: the MIB is a tip-off network for catching omissions, not a stand-alone reason to decline.

Question 10

An applicant classified as a substandard (rated) risk will typically experience what?

Why

A substandard, or rated, risk represents a greater-than-average likelihood of claims, so the insurer charges a higher premium (or adjusts the coverage) to offset it, rather than simply declining. Hook: substandard risk means a higher price tag, not an automatic no.

8 Individual A&H Policy Provisions

Question 1

Under the entire contract provision of an individual health policy, the contract consists of what?

Why

The entire contract is just the policy plus the application attached to it. Nothing outside those documents, not the agent's promises and not the company's internal rules, can be made part of the agreement. Hook: if it isn't in the policy or the attached application, it isn't in the contract.

Question 2

Under the entire contract; changes provision, who has the authority to change the terms of a health policy?

Why

Changes to the contract are valid only when approved in writing by an executive officer of the insurer, and even then they must be noted on or attached to the policy. An agent has no power to waive or alter provisions. Hook: only a company officer can change the deal, never the agent at your kitchen table.

Question 3

After the time limit on certain defenses has passed, how does it affect a claim involving a pre-existing condition that was not specifically excluded?

Why

Once the time limit passes, the insurer loses the right to deny a claim merely because the condition predated the policy, unless that condition was specifically named and excluded by endorsement. It protects insureds from late-discovered, unintentional omissions. Hook: after the clock runs out, an unexcluded pre-existing condition can't be used to refuse the claim.

Question 4

Under the model uniform provisions, the grace period for a health policy with monthly premiums is generally how long?

Why

The grace period varies with how often premiums are paid: 7 days for weekly premiums, 10 days for monthly premiums, and 31 days for any other mode. The less often you pay, the longer the grace period. Hook: weekly 7, monthly 10, everything else 31, so the rarer the payment, the longer the grace.

Question 5

If the insurer fails to furnish claim forms within the required time, what may the claimant do?

Why

If the insurer doesn't deliver claim forms on time, the claimant is allowed to submit proof of loss in their own words; any written statement of the nature and extent of the loss will satisfy the requirement. Hook: no forms from the insurer means you can describe the loss in any written form.

Question 6

The facility of payment clause within the payment of claims provision allows the insurer to do what?

Why

The facility of payment clause lets the insurer pay up to a stated amount to a relative or whoever appears equitably entitled, which is useful when there's no living beneficiary or the insured is deceased or incapacitated. It gives the insurer a practical way to settle small amounts without a court. Hook: facility of payment is the insurer's shortcut to pay someone fairly entitled when no beneficiary fits.

Question 7

The purpose of the proof of loss provision is to do what?

Why

Proof of loss is the supporting documentation, bills, statements, and records, that lets the insurer verify a claim and determine what it owes. Without it, the insurer can't properly evaluate the claim. Hook: proof of loss is the evidence file that backs up the claim.

Question 8

Under the physical examination and autopsy provision, the insurer has the right to do what?

Why

While a claim is pending, the insurer may have the insured examined as often as reasonably necessary and, in the event of death, order an autopsy unless state law forbids it, with the insurer paying for these. Hook: during a claim the insurer can examine (or autopsy) at its own cost to verify the loss.

Question 9

Under the optional change of occupation provision, if an insured changes to a more hazardous occupation, the insurer may do what at the time of a claim?

Why

If the insured moves to riskier work and is later hurt, the insurer can pay reduced benefits, specifically the amount the premium already paid would have purchased at the rate for the more hazardous job. The policy isn't void; the benefit is simply scaled to the risk. Hook: a more hazardous job means benefits shrink to match what your premium buys at the higher-risk rate.

Question 10

A probationary (waiting) period in a health policy is best described as what?

Why

A probationary period is an initial stretch, often the first 15 to 30 days after the policy starts, during which sickness-related losses aren't yet covered; it keeps someone from buying a policy after symptoms appear. Accident coverage usually begins right away. Hook: a short waiting period at the start before sickness benefits kick in.

9 Disability Income & Related Insurance

Question 1

An "any occupation" (any occ) definition of total disability is generally satisfied only when the insured cannot do what?

Why

The any-occupation definition is stricter and more insurer-friendly: you're considered totally disabled only if you can't work in any job that fits your background. It's harder to qualify for benefits than under own occ. Hook: any occ asks whether you can do any suitable job, not just your old one.

Question 2

Which definition of total disability is generally more favorable to the insured?

Why

Own occupation is the more favorable, and more expensive, definition, because it pays when you can't do your specific job regardless of whether you could earn a living elsewhere. Any occ, by contrast, sets a much higher bar to collect. Hook: own occ favors the insured, any occ favors the insurer.

Question 3

Under a presumptive disability provision, an insured is automatically considered totally disabled upon which of the following?

Why

Presumptive disability treats certain severe losses, such as total loss of sight, hearing, speech, or any two limbs, as automatically and totally disabling, so full benefits are paid even if the insured could technically still work. Often no elimination period applies. Hook: lose sight, hearing, speech, or two limbs and you're presumed totally disabled, no questions asked.

Question 4

Under a recurrent disability provision, if an insured returns to work and then becomes disabled again from the same cause within the stated period, the second disability is treated how?

Why

The recurrent disability provision says that a relapse from the same cause within a set time (often six months) counts as a continuation of the prior claim, so the insured doesn't have to satisfy a brand-new elimination period. A later, unrelated disability would start fresh. Hook: same cause, soon after, means it picks up where it left off, no new waiting period.

Question 5

How does choosing a longer elimination period generally affect the premium of a disability income policy?

Why

A longer elimination period means the insurer pays out less often and later, so it charges a lower premium. The insured accepts more of the short-term risk in exchange for a cheaper policy. Hook: wait longer to collect, pay less to own, so a longer elimination period means a lower premium.

Question 6

A probationary period in a disability income policy most commonly applies to which type of loss?

Why

The probationary period is a short stretch at the start of the policy during which sickness-related disabilities aren't covered, which discourages someone from buying coverage once symptoms appear. Disabilities from accidents are usually covered from day one. Hook: a probationary period delays sickness coverage at the very start, while accidents are covered right away.

Question 7

Under a typical waiver of premium provision in a disability income policy, what happens once the insured has been disabled for the required time (often 90 days)?

Why

Once a disability lasts past the waiver's waiting period (commonly 90 days), the insurer waives further premiums for as long as the disability continues, and often refunds any premiums paid during the waiting period. The policy stays fully in force. Hook: stay disabled long enough and the insurer stops charging premiums, sometimes back to day one.

Question 8

A return of premium rider on a disability income policy provides what?

Why

A return of premium rider refunds part of the premiums paid, less any claims, after a stated number of years, rewarding insureds who stay healthy. It raises the premium in exchange for that potential refund. Hook: stay claim-free and the insurer hands back a chunk of your premiums.

Question 9

A rehabilitation benefit in a disability income policy is generally designed to do what?

Why

The rehabilitation benefit funds vocational training, education, or similar services that help a disabled insured re-enter the workforce, often while disability benefits continue during the program. It serves both the insured and the insurer, who would rather see a return to work. Hook: it pays to retrain you back into a job.

Question 10

Key person disability insurance is designed to do what for a business?

Why

Key person DI pays the business a benefit when an essential employee is disabled, helping cover lost productivity and the cost of recruiting or training a replacement. The business owns the policy and receives the benefit. Hook: it cushions the company when a key player can't work, much like key person life does at death.

10 Medical Plans

Question 1

Basic medical expense (first-dollar) coverage is generally characterized by what?

Why

Basic medical expense plans (hospital, surgical, and physician expense) typically pay from the first dollar with little or no deductible, but they cap benefits at modest limits. They cover routine costs well but can run out fast for a catastrophic claim. Hook: basic plans pay early but shallow, low deductible and low ceiling.

Question 2

A surgical expense policy that lists a specific dollar amount payable for each type of operation uses what approach?

Why

A scheduled surgical plan assigns a set dollar benefit to each listed procedure, so an appendectomy pays one amount and a different surgery pays another. If the surgeon charges more than the schedule amount, the insured covers the difference. Hook: a surgical schedule is a fixed price list, one dollar figure per operation.

Question 3

Basic hospital expense coverage typically provides benefits for what?

Why

Basic hospital expense pays a daily room-and-board benefit (often up to a stated maximum per day and number of days) plus miscellaneous hospital charges like lab work and medications. It doesn't cover the surgeon, which is surgical expense. Hook: hospital expense pays for the bed and the hospital's charges, not the surgeon.

Question 4

A health maintenance organization (HMO) is generally financed through what?

Why

An HMO operates on a prepaid basis: members pay a fixed periodic amount and receive comprehensive services from the HMO's providers, who are often paid by capitation (a set fee per member). It shifts the focus from billing per service to managing care within a fixed budget. Hook: an HMO is prepaid care, a flat fee buys a defined set of services.

Question 5

An independent practice association (IPA) model HMO contracts with whom to provide care?

Why

In the IPA model, the HMO contracts with independent doctors (or physician groups) who continue to run their own practices and see non-HMO patients too, rather than employing them directly as in a staff model. Hook: IPA doctors keep their own practices and just contract with the HMO.

Question 6

A point-of-service (POS) plan is best described as what?

Why

A POS plan blends the two models: members pick a primary care physician and get the best benefits in network (HMO-style), but they can still go out of network at a higher cost (PPO-style). They decide at the point of service. Hook: POS is the HMO-PPO hybrid, gatekeeper inside, freedom outside for more money.

Question 7

How does an exclusive provider organization (EPO) typically differ from both an HMO and a PPO?

Why

An EPO is a middle ground: like an HMO, it generally covers only in-network providers (no out-of-network benefits except emergencies), but like a PPO, it usually doesn't require a gatekeeper referral to see a specialist. Hook: EPO equals HMO network rules with PPO-style direct specialist access.

Question 8

A health savings account (HSA) may generally be established only by someone who is enrolled in what?

Why

HSAs are tied to HDHPs by law: you must be covered by a qualified high deductible health plan (and have no disqualifying coverage) to contribute. The high deductible is what the HSA is meant to help fund. Hook: no HDHP, no HSA, they're a required pair.

Question 9

Which of the following is true of a health savings account (HSA)?

Why

An HSA belongs to the individual, so it follows them from job to job, the balance rolls over year to year, and it offers strong tax treatment: deductible (or pre-tax) contributions, tax-free growth, and tax-free withdrawals for qualified medical expenses. Hook: an HSA is yours to keep, rolls over, and is tax-favored coming and going.

Question 10

Consumer-directed health plans (such as HDHPs paired with HSAs) are designed mainly to do what?

Why

Consumer-directed plans put more decision-making, and more of the early cost, in the consumer's hands, pairing a high deductible with a tax-favored account so people shop more carefully for care. Hook: consumer-directed means you steer the spending, with skin in the game.

11 Group Health Insurance

Question 1

In a group health plan, the individual covered members receive what document evidencing their coverage?

Why

The insurer issues one master contract to the group sponsor, and each covered member gets a certificate of coverage summarizing their benefits and rights. The members don't hold individual policies. Hook: the sponsor gets the master contract, the members get certificates.

Question 2

The enrollment (eligibility) period in a group plan is the window during which an eligible employee may do what?

Why

Once eligible, an employee gets an enrollment period, a limited window often around 31 days, to elect coverage. Enroll on time and no evidence of insurability is required; miss it and they may become a late enrollee. Hook: the enrollment period is your on-time window to sign up without health questions.

Question 3

In a noncontributory group plan, what level of eligible-employee participation is generally required, and why?

Why

When the employer pays 100% of the premium (noncontributory), insurers require 100% of eligible employees to be covered. Since employees pay nothing and everyone is in, healthy and unhealthy alike, adverse selection nearly disappears. Hook: the employer pays all, so everyone's in, 100% participation.

Question 4

A group plan in which the employer pays the entire premium is called what?

Why

A noncontributory plan is fully employer-paid; the employee contributes nothing toward the premium. A contributory plan, by contrast, has the employee pay a share. Hook: noncontributory means the employee does not contribute, so the employer foots the whole bill.

Question 5

An employee who declines coverage during the initial enrollment period and later wants to join is generally treated as what?

Why

Someone who passes up the on-time enrollment window becomes a late enrollee and may have to provide evidence of insurability or wait until an open enrollment period to join. The penalty discourages waiting until you're sick to sign up. Hook: enroll late and you may have to prove insurability or wait, the cost of not signing up on time.

Question 6

Under COBRA, who generally pays the premium for the continued coverage?

Why

The person continuing coverage pays the full premium, up to 102% of the group rate, with the extra 2% covering administrative cost. COBRA preserves access to the group plan, but not the employer's subsidy. Hook: you keep the group coverage but pay it all yourself, plus a 2% admin add-on.

Question 7

The conversion privilege in a group health plan generally allows a departing employee to do what?

Why

The conversion privilege lets an employee leaving the group switch to an individual policy without proving insurability, though usually at individual (higher) rates and within a limited application window. It protects coverage for someone who has become uninsurable. Hook: conversion turns group coverage into an individual policy with no health questions, but at individual prices.

Question 8

To exercise the group conversion privilege, the departing insured generally must apply within what timeframe after group coverage ends?

Why

Conversion must be requested within a short window after group coverage ends, commonly 31 days. Miss that window and the right to convert without evidence of insurability is lost. Hook: act fast, the conversion window is short, often about 31 days.

Question 9

When an employee is covered as an employee under their own group plan and as a dependent under a spouse's plan, coordination of benefits determines what?

Why

Coordination of benefits assigns one plan as primary (pays first) and the other as secondary (pays the balance up to allowable limits) so the total paid doesn't exceed the actual expense. Your own employer plan is usually primary for you. Hook: COB just sorts out who pays first and who pays the rest.

Question 10

For an active employee age 65 or older covered by both a large employer's group plan and Medicare, which generally pays first?

Why

For active employees age 65 and older at larger employers, the group health plan is primary and Medicare is secondary, under the Medicare Secondary Payer rules. The retiree situation can differ. Hook: still working at a big employer means the group plan leads and Medicare follows.

12 Dental & Vision Insurance

Question 1

A scheduled (table of allowances) dental plan pays benefits how?

Why

A scheduled dental plan lists a set dollar benefit for each covered procedure, regardless of what the dentist actually charges. If the bill exceeds the schedule amount, the patient pays the difference. Hook: scheduled dental is a fixed price list, one dollar figure per procedure.

Question 2

A nonscheduled (comprehensive) dental plan typically pays benefits based on what?

Why

A nonscheduled, or comprehensive, dental plan pays a percentage of the UCR charge for each service rather than a fixed dollar amount, so benefits track local prevailing fees. It's the dental version of UCR-based medical coverage. Hook: nonscheduled dental pays a percentage of the going UCR rate, not a fixed table.

Question 3

A dental HMO (DHMO) generally pays participating dentists how?

Why

Like a medical HMO, a DHMO pays network dentists a capitation fee, a set amount per member assigned to them regardless of services used, and members generally must use network dentists. It emphasizes prepaid, managed dental care. Hook: a DHMO pays dentists per member (capitation), not per procedure.

Question 4

A dental PPO is characterized by what?

Why

A dental PPO contracts with a network of dentists who accept negotiated (discounted) fees, while still letting members see out-of-network dentists at a higher out-of-pocket cost. It mirrors the medical PPO model. Hook: a dental PPO is the discounted-network-with-an-exit-option model.

Question 5

Major dental services such as crowns, bridges, and dentures are most commonly covered at approximately what coinsurance level, and why lower than preventive care?

Why

Major services are usually covered at about 50%, the lowest tier, because they are expensive, so the plan shifts more of the cost to the patient through higher coinsurance. The three-tier 100/80/50 pattern is the classic dental structure. Hook: the bigger and pricier the work, the smaller the share the plan pays, with major care around 50%.

Question 6

A dental plan has a $1,500 annual maximum. A patient has already received $1,300 in paid benefits this year and now needs a procedure for which the plan would otherwise pay $400. How much will the plan pay for this procedure?

Why

Only $200 of the annual maximum remains ($1,500 minus the $1,300 already paid), so the plan pays $200 toward this procedure and the patient covers the rest. The annual maximum caps total payments regardless of the individual procedure's coinsurance. Hook: the plan pays only what's left under the annual max, here $200, and the patient absorbs the overage.

Question 7

Predetermination of benefits (pretreatment review) in a dental plan lets the patient and dentist do what before major work begins?

Why

With predetermination, the dentist submits the proposed treatment plan and the insurer estimates what it will cover before the work is done, so there are no payment surprises. It's recommended for expensive procedures. Hook: predetermination is a no-surprises preview of what the plan will pay.

Question 8

Which of the following is typically excluded from dental coverage?

Why

Dental plans generally exclude purely cosmetic work, like whitening or veneers done solely for appearance, since it isn't medically necessary. Functional and preventive care is what's covered. Hook: cosmetic-only dental work is on you; the plan covers function, not vanity.

Question 9

Group dental coverage is most commonly offered how, relative to the medical plan?

Why

Dental is usually written as its own standalone plan rather than folded into major medical, with its own premium, deductible, maximums, and benefit tiers. Employers often offer it as a separate elective benefit. Hook: dental typically stands on its own, separate from the medical plan.

Question 10

A vision plan that covers an eye exam once every 12 months and new frames once every 24 months is using what feature?

Why

Frequency limitations cap how often each benefit can be used, such as one exam per year and frames every other year, controlling cost while still meeting routine needs. Hook: frequency limits set how often you can use each vision benefit.

13 Senior & Special Needs Health Insurance

Question 1

Original Medicare consists of which two parts?

Why

Original Medicare is the combination of Part A (hospital insurance) and Part B (medical insurance). Parts C and D are the private add-on options (Advantage and prescription drugs). Hook: Original Medicare equals A plus B, hospital plus medical.

Question 2

The Initial Enrollment Period for Medicare is generally how long, centered on the person's 65th birthday month?

Why

The Initial Enrollment Period spans 7 months: the 3 months before your 65th-birthday month, that month itself, and the 3 months after. Enrolling on time avoids late penalties. Hook: a 7-month window, three before, the month of, and three after your 65th.

Question 3

For most people already receiving Social Security, enrollment in Medicare Part A at age 65 is generally what?

Why

People already drawing Social Security are usually enrolled in Part A automatically at 65, since Part A is premium-free for those with enough work credits. Part B enrollment may require action because it carries a premium. Hook: Part A usually arrives automatically when you're already on Social Security.

Question 4

Hospice care for a terminally ill Medicare beneficiary is covered under which part?

Why

Hospice care for the terminally ill is a Part A benefit, focused on comfort and support rather than cure. Hook: hospice rides under Part A, alongside the other inpatient-type benefits.

Question 5

Medicare Part D provides coverage for what?

Why

Part D is the prescription drug benefit, delivered through private drug plans (either standalone or built into a Medicare Advantage plan). It helps cover the cost of outpatient medications. Hook: Part D is for drugs, the prescription piece of Medicare.

Question 6

Medicare Part D prescription drug coverage is provided how?

Why

Part D plans are offered by private insurers approved by Medicare, and enrollment is voluntary (with a possible late penalty for delaying). Beneficiaries choose a plan that fits their medications. Hook: Part D is private, optional drug coverage you sign up for.

Question 7

A Medicare Supplement policy generally must include a free look period of how long?

Why

Medigap policies carry a 30-day free look, letting the buyer return the policy for a full refund if they change their mind. It's longer than the typical individual-policy free look. Hook: Medigap gives a generous 30-day free look.

Question 8

Medicaid differs from Medicare primarily in that Medicaid is what?

Why

Medicaid is a joint federal-state program that provides coverage based on financial need, with income and asset limits, rather than on age or work history. Medicare, by contrast, is largely age- or disability-based and federally run. Hook: Medicaid is need-based coverage; Medicare is earned, age-based coverage.

Question 9

A tax-qualified long-term care policy typically begins paying benefits when the insured cannot perform how many activities of daily living (ADLs)?

Why

Tax-qualified LTC policies generally pay when the insured is unable to perform at least two of the six ADLs (bathing, dressing, eating, transferring, toileting, and continence) for an expected period, or has a severe cognitive impairment. Hook: lose two of the six ADLs and tax-qualified LTC benefits kick in.

Question 10

Which of the following is one of the standard activities of daily living (ADLs) used as an LTC benefit trigger?

Why

The six ADLs are bathing, dressing, eating, transferring (moving in and out of a bed or chair), toileting, and continence. They measure basic self-care, not complex tasks like driving or managing finances. Hook: ADLs are the basics, bathing, dressing, eating, transferring, toileting, continence.

14 Federal Tax Considerations — Health Insurance

Question 1

Premiums an individual pays for their own personal health insurance are generally treated how for federal income tax?

Why

Personal health insurance premiums generally aren't deductible, though they may count toward the itemized medical expense deduction if total medical costs clear the AGI threshold. Hook: personal health premiums usually get no deduction, paid with after-tax dollars.

Question 2

Unreimbursed medical and dental expenses are deductible as an itemized deduction only to the extent they exceed what?

Why

Itemizers can deduct unreimbursed medical expenses, but only the portion that exceeds a set percentage of AGI (currently 7.5%). Expenses below that floor aren't deductible. Hook: only medical costs above the AGI floor count, and only if you itemize.

Question 3

Benefits received from an individually owned disability income policy (premiums paid with after-tax dollars) are generally treated how?

Why

Because the insured paid the premiums with after-tax dollars and got no deduction, the disability benefits come back income-tax-free. This is why individual DI benefits aren't reduced by taxes. Hook: after-tax premiums in means tax-free benefits out, the core DI rule.

Question 4

When an employer pays the premiums for a group disability income plan and deducts them as a business expense, how are the benefits taxed to the employee?

Why

If the employer paid (and deducted) the premiums and the employee was never taxed on them, the disability benefits are taxable to the employee when received; the tax simply shifts to the back end. Hook: employer-paid, employer-deducted DI premiums mean the employee is taxed on the benefits.

Question 5

Employer-provided group health coverage is considered tax-favored mainly because what?

Why

The combination is what makes it powerful: the employer deducts the premium as a business expense, and the employee pays no tax on either the coverage or the benefits. Hook: deductible for the employer, tax-free for the employee, the best of both ends.

Question 6

Premiums an employer pays for a group disability income plan are generally treated how for the employer?

Why

An employer can deduct group disability premiums as an ordinary business expense, just like other employee benefit costs. The trade-off is that the employee is then taxed on the benefits. Hook: the employer deducts the DI premiums, which is why the employee gets taxed later.

Question 7

For a business overhead expense (BOE) disability policy, how are the premiums and benefits generally treated?

Why

BOE premiums are deductible as a business expense, and because the benefits reimburse otherwise-deductible business expenses, the benefits are taxable to the business. It's consistent with the deduct-now, tax-later pattern. Hook: BOE premiums are deductible going in, so the benefits are taxable coming out.

Question 8

Contributions to a health flexible spending account (FSA) through salary reduction are generally treated how?

Why

FSA contributions come out of salary on a pre-tax basis, lowering the employee's taxable income, in exchange for the use-it-or-lose-it restriction on unused funds. Hook: FSA money goes in pre-tax, shrinking your taxable pay.

Question 9

A self-employed person may generally deduct their health insurance premiums how?

Why

The self-employed health insurance deduction lets self-employed individuals deduct premiums for medical, dental, and qualified LTC coverage above the line, without having to itemize, subject to certain limits. Hook: the self-employed get a special above-the-line write-off for their health premiums.

Question 10

Benefits received from a tax-qualified long-term care policy are generally treated how?

Why

Benefits from a tax-qualified LTC policy are generally received income-tax-free, up to a stated per diem limit set by law. Amounts above that limit may be taxable unless they reflect actual incurred expenses. Hook: qualified LTC benefits come tax-free, within a daily cap.

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