Free Practice

Free Missouri Life, Accident & Health Practice Questions

Real questions in the style of the Missouri Life, Accident & Health licensing exam, pulled straight from the TESTivity course, each with a plain-English explanation. Start with the Missouri-specific rules below, then work the rest, and unlock the full simulator when you're ready to drill.

Questions on exam105
Passing score70 scaled
Test providerPearson VUE
Time limit3 hr
Pass rate63%

That's right — 37% of test-takers do not pass the Missouri Life, Accident & Health exam on their first attempt. Make sure you're part of the 63% who do.

First-time pass rate: 63% · Source: NAIC, 2024 (most recent available statistics)

Practice Modes

Choose your practice mode

Same questions as the chapters below, re-dealt as a real test. Nothing to sign up for.

Simulate the Exam

A timed, scored run with no hints — the way test day actually feels.

  • 50 questions, timed
  • No feedback until you submit
  • Flag questions and come back
  • Scored against the published 70 passing standard

Quiz Mode

Answer, find out immediately, read why. Best for learning the material.

  • 25 questions, untimed
  • Instant right/wrong on every question
  • Plain-English explanation each time
  • Running score as you go

Fresh shuffle every time you start.

Build Your Own Practice Test

Drill only the chapters that are costing you points.

  • Pick any chapters you want
  • 5 to 150 questions
  • Timed or untimed, your call
  • Instant feedback on or off

Keeps your selection.

Just want to study with the answers showing? Every chapter on this page is open-book review mode — open one and start reading.

1 Insurance Basics & Foundational Concepts

Question 1

Which type of risk is the only kind that insurance is designed to cover?

Why

Insurance only deals with pure risk: situations where there's a chance of loss or no loss, but no chance of gain (like your house burning down). Speculative risk involves a chance of loss, no loss, OR gain. That's gambling and investing, and insurers won't touch it. If there's an upside, it's not insurable.

Question 2

A hazard is best defined as:

Why

A hazard doesn't cause the loss itself; it just makes a loss more likely or more severe. Icy steps, frayed wiring, a careless attitude: none of those start the fire or the fall, but they tip the odds. Causes of loss are perils; hazards just stack the deck.

Question 3

Which of the following is the best example of a moral hazard?

Why

Moral hazard equals dishonesty. It's the risk that someone deliberately causes or exaggerates a loss to profit, like torching a failing business for the payout. Don't mix it up with morale hazard (carelessness, choice B) or physical hazard (the actual physical conditions in A and D).

Question 4

The law of large numbers is important to insurers because it:

Why

An insurer can't predict whether your house specifically will burn down, but give them a big enough pool of similar homes and they can predict pretty accurately how many out of the whole group will. That's the law of large numbers: more similar exposures, more reliable predictions. It's the statistical engine that makes pricing coverage possible at all.

Question 5

Which of the following is a characteristic of an ideally insurable risk?

Why

Insurers like risks that are accidental (due to chance, not intentional) and definite and measurable (you can pin down when, where, and how much). Add in 'predictable for large groups,' 'not catastrophic to the insurer,' and 'affordable premium,' and you've got the recipe for an insurable risk. A loss someone causes on purpose? Not insurable.

Question 6

Adverse selection refers to the tendency of:

Why

Adverse selection is the insurer's headache: the people most likely to have a loss are also the most eager to buy and keep coverage. If underwriting didn't push back, the risk pool would fill up with bad risks and the math would collapse. It's exactly why underwriting and exclusions exist.

Question 7

The primary purpose of reinsurance is to:

Why

Reinsurance is insurance for insurance companies. The original insurer (the ceding company) hands off part of its risk to a reinsurer so one giant loss doesn't sink it. Individuals never deal with reinsurers directly; it all happens behind the scenes between carriers.

Question 8

A stock insurance company is owned by its:

Why

A stock insurer is owned by its stockholders (shareholders), who receive taxable dividends when the company profits. Policyholders are just customers. Contrast that with a mutual insurer, which is owned by its policyholders. Stock equals stockholders; mutual equals members/policyholders.

Question 9

The authority that the public reasonably believes an agent has, based on the insurer's actions, is called:

Why

Apparent authority is about appearances: what a reasonable customer believes the agent can do based on how the insurer let the agent act (business cards, signage, company applications). Express authority is spelled out in the contract; implied is what's needed to carry out the express. Apparent is the 'looks legit' bucket.

Question 10

Because an insurance policy is drafted by the insurer and offered to the applicant on a 'take it or leave it' basis, it is classified as a contract of:

Why

A contract of adhesion is written by one party (the insurer) and accepted as-is by the other, with no line-by-line negotiating. The practical kicker: because the insured didn't get to write it, any ambiguity is interpreted in the insured's favor. That's a courtroom rule worth knowing.

2 Life Insurance Basics

Question 1

A buy-sell agreement funded with life insurance is primarily designed to:

Why

A buy-sell agreement is a pre-arranged deal: when an owner dies, the surviving owners (or the business) buy out the deceased's share, and life insurance provides the cash to fund the purchase. It keeps the business in the right hands and gives the deceased owner's family a fair payout without a fire sale.

Question 2

The needs approach to calculating life insurance focuses on:

Why

The needs approach tallies up the actual bills the family faces if the insured dies: final expenses, paying off the mortgage, an income fund for survivors, kids' education, an emergency cushion. Add them up, subtract existing resources, and the gap is how much coverage is needed.

Question 3

Under the needs approach, which of the following would be classified as an immediate cash need at death?

Why

Immediate (or cash) needs are the bills that hit right away: funeral and burial costs, final medical expenses, and outstanding debts. Ongoing income for survivors and future college costs are different buckets, classified as income needs and future needs rather than immediate cash needs.

Question 4

All else being equal, paying life insurance premiums monthly instead of annually will result in:

Why

Paying more frequently costs more overall. The insurer loses some investment income and incurs more billing expense, so monthly, quarterly, and semi-annual modes carry small added charges. Annual is the cheapest way to pay. More frequent equals more total dollars.

Question 5

Under a level premium whole life policy, premiums in the early years are:

Why

Level premium smooths a rising cost into a flat payment. In the early years you overpay relative to the true cost of insurance; the insurer banks that excess into reserves (which fuel cash value). In later years, when the real cost would skyrocket, those reserves cover the gap. That's the magic of level premium.

Question 6

A participating life insurance policy is one that:

Why

A participating policy lets the owner 'participate' in the insurer's favorable results through policy dividends, typically from mutual companies. Nonparticipating policies pay no dividends and usually come from stock companies. If it pays a dividend, it participates.

Question 7

An applicant who presents a greater-than-average likelihood of loss but is still insurable would most likely be classified as:

Why

The main risk buckets run preferred (better than average, lowest premium), standard (average), substandard or 'rated' (higher risk, higher premium), and declined (uninsurable). A higher-than-average but still insurable applicant lands in substandard, where they're charged extra to reflect the added risk.

Question 8

A 'preferred' risk classification is given to applicants who:

Why

Preferred risks are the gold-star applicants: nonsmokers, healthy weight, clean history, lower-than-average mortality. Because they're cheaper to insure, they earn the lowest premiums. Standard is average, substandard pays more, and declined can't get coverage at all.

Question 9

The Medical Information Bureau (MIB) assists insurers primarily by:

Why

The MIB is a shared database where member insurers post coded information about applicants' health-related findings. If someone fails to disclose a condition on a new application, the MIB can flag the discrepancy. It's a fraud-and-omission check, not a claims payer or rate setter.

Question 10

The primary role of an underwriter is to:

Why

The underwriter is the gatekeeper of risk: reviewing the application and supporting info, deciding whether to accept the applicant, and assigning the right risk class and premium. Agents sell, claims examiners pay claims, but the underwriter decides who gets in the door and on what terms.

3 Life Insurance Policies

Question 1

The conversion privilege in a term life policy allows the insured to:

Why

Convertible term lets you swap your term policy for a permanent one (like whole life) without a new medical exam, even if your health has tanked. The new premium is based on your age at conversion. It's a built-in escape hatch from 'temporary' to 'permanent' coverage.

Question 2

Under a level term policy, which of the following remains constant during the term?

Why

Level term keeps both the death benefit and the premium flat for the whole term, the most common and predictable flavor. Contrast that with decreasing term (benefit drops, premium level) and increasing term (benefit rises). 'Level' means nothing moves while the term runs.

Question 3

The cash value in a whole life policy grows on a:

Why

Cash value grows tax-deferred: you don't pay taxes on the gains as they accumulate inside the policy. Tax can come into play later if you surrender for more than your basis, but year to year, that internal growth isn't taxed. Deferred, not necessarily tax-free.

Question 4

Ordinary (straight) whole life insurance requires premium payments:

Why

Ordinary, straight, or continuous-premium whole life spreads premiums across the insured's entire life, you pay until death or maturity. It has the lowest premium of the whole life family because payments are stretched out the longest. Limited-pay and single-premium just compress that schedule.

Question 5

Universal life is often described as 'unbundled' because the policyowner can see:

Why

Unbundled means transparent: a UL statement breaks out the cost of insurance (mortality), the expense charges, and the interest credited to cash value, all itemized. Whole life bundles these into one premium you never see split apart. UL shows you the moving parts.

Question 6

If a universal life policyowner stops paying premiums, the policy will:

Why

UL's flexibility means you can skip premiums, but only as long as there's enough cash value to cover the monthly cost-of-insurance and expense charges. When the cash value runs dry and can't cover those deductions, the policy lapses. Flexible isn't the same as free.

Question 7

To sell variable life insurance, a producer must hold:

Why

Because variable products are regulated as securities, selling them takes a dual qualification: a state life insurance license plus a FINRA securities registration. A plain life license alone isn't enough. The investment component is what triggers the securities rules.

Question 8

The cash value of a variable life policy is held in the insurer's:

Why

Variable products hold cash value in a separate account, segregated from the insurer's general account and invested in subaccounts the owner picks. The general account (backing whole life and fixed UL) is where the insurer guarantees a return; the separate account passes market performance straight through to the policyowner.

Question 9

Compared with individual life insurance, group life insurance typically involves:

Why

Group plans underwrite the group as a whole, not each person, so members usually get coverage with little or no medical underwriting up to a guaranteed issue limit. The large, naturally-formed group spreads the risk, which is why a new employee can often get coverage without an exam.

Question 10

A contributory group life insurance plan is one in which:

Why

In a contributory plan, employees chip in toward the premium (often via payroll deduction), so insurers usually require at least 75% participation to guard against adverse selection. In a noncontributory plan the employer pays it all and typically 100% of eligible employees must be covered. Who pays drives the participation rule.

4 Life Insurance Provisions, Options & Riders

Question 1

An insured dies during the policy's grace period without having paid the overdue premium. What does the insurer do?

Why

The grace period (commonly about a month, often 30 or 31 days) keeps the policy in force even after a premium is missed, so coverage doesn't lapse the moment a payment is late. If the insured dies during that window the company still pays; it just subtracts the premium that was owed. The grace period protects against accidental lapse, and the only catch at death is the company collecting what it was already due.

Question 2

Under the entire contract provision, what makes up the complete agreement between the insurer and the owner?

Why

The entire contract is the policy itself plus a copy of the application attached to it, and nothing else. The insurer can't incorporate by reference some outside document, like its bylaws or underwriting guidelines, to change your rights later, and the agent's side comments don't count. If it isn't in the policy or the attached application, it isn't part of the deal.

Question 3

The automatic premium loan provision is designed to do what?

Why

The automatic premium loan (APL) is a safety net: if a premium goes unpaid past the grace period, the company automatically borrows it from your cash value so the policy doesn't lapse. It quietly keeps coverage alive, though each rescue is a loan that chips away at cash value and, if left unpaid, the death benefit. Picture it as the policy paying its own premium out of the cash value you've built.

Question 4

Nonforfeiture options exist to protect what when a permanent policy is surrendered or lapses?

Why

Nonforfeiture options guarantee that the cash value you've built in a permanent policy can't be forfeited if you stop paying. Instead of the company keeping it, you choose the form in which you take it. The word says it all: non-forfeiture means you don't forfeit your cash value. It's yours, and these options just decide what shape it takes.

Question 5

Policy dividends from a participating (par) whole life policy are best described as what?

Why

A participating policy can pay dividends, but they're not investment earnings, they're treated as a return of premium the company overcharged, which is exactly why they're generally not taxable. And because they depend on the insurer's actual experience (mortality, expenses, investment results), they're never guaranteed. A dividend is your own money coming back, not a profit the company promises.

Question 6

An owner directs dividends to purchase small amounts of additional permanent coverage. This dividend option is called what?

Why

The paid-up additions option uses each dividend as a single premium to buy a little extra paid-up whole life. It's a popular pick because the additions raise both the death benefit and the cash value, and each one immediately has its own cash value too. Picture each dividend buying a tiny mini paid-up policy that bolts onto the main one.

Question 7

Which dividend option directly lowers the policyowner's out-of-pocket cost on the next premium?

Why

The reduction of premium option applies the dividend against the next premium due, so the owner simply pays the difference out of pocket. It's a practical choice for someone who wants to ease the ongoing cost of keeping the policy rather than build extra value. In plain terms, the dividend pays part of your bill for you.

Question 8

A beneficiary selects the straight life (life-only) income option and dies after receiving just three payments. What happens to the remaining proceeds?

Why

Straight life income pays the largest monthly check because it's a pure bet on longevity: payments continue for the recipient's lifetime and stop the instant they die, with nothing left for heirs. Die early and the insurer keeps the balance; live a long time and you can collect well beyond the original proceeds. Life only means exactly that, the biggest payment but zero guarantee to anyone else.

Question 9

The waiver of premium rider keeps a policy in force by doing what if the insured becomes totally disabled?

Why

With a waiver of premium rider, if the insured becomes totally disabled (usually after a waiting period of around six months), the insurer stops charging premiums while keeping the policy completely in force, so cash value and death benefit keep building as if you were still paying. You get sick, the insurer picks up the tab, and nothing about your coverage skips a beat.

Question 10

The guaranteed insurability rider gives the insured what right?

Why

The guaranteed insurability rider (GIR) lets the insured purchase extra coverage at specified ages or life events, like marriage or the birth of a child, with no new medical exam or evidence of insurability. It's pure gold for someone whose health later declines, because the price stays tied to the original good-health rating. It guarantees you remain insurable later, no matter how your health turns out.

5 Annuities

Question 1

An annuity is often described as the mirror image of life insurance because it protects against the risk of what?

Why

Life insurance hedges the risk of dying too soon and leaving dependents short. An annuity hedges the opposite risk: living too long and running out of money. That's why an annuity is essentially a vehicle for the systematic liquidation of an estate, turning a sum of money into income you can't outlive. Easy hook: life insurance is for dying too soon, an annuity is for living too long.

Question 2

A deferred annuity is one that does what?

Why

A deferred annuity postpones the income phase, sometimes by decades, while the money grows tax-deferred in the meantime. It's the accumulation-focused cousin of the immediate annuity. Hook: deferred means the payout is deferred to later, so it's built for growing money before you need the income.

Question 3

A single premium annuity is funded how?

Why

A single premium annuity is bought with one lump sum up front and takes no further deposits. It can be immediate (income starts now) or deferred (income later), but either way the funding is one-and-done. Hook: single premium means a single payment buys the whole contract.

Question 4

In a fixed annuity, who bears the investment risk?

Why

Because the insurer guarantees both the interest rate and the payout amount in a fixed annuity, the insurer, not the owner, carries the investment risk. If the company's general-account investments underperform, it still must honor the guarantee. Hook: the guarantees live with the insurer, so the risk does too.

Question 5

Premiums paid into a variable annuity are placed in what?

Why

Variable annuity money goes into the insurer's separate account, where the owner allocates it among subaccounts that work much like mutual funds (stocks, bonds, and so on). That market exposure is exactly what makes the contract variable. Hook: variable means a separate account whose value varies with the markets.

Question 6

To sell variable annuities, a producer must generally hold what?

Why

Because a variable annuity is both an insurance product and a security, selling it requires dual qualification: a life insurance license from the state plus a securities registration through FINRA, and the prospect must receive a prospectus. Hook: it's part insurance, part investment, so you need both sets of credentials.

Question 7

A period certain (fixed period) annuity option pays income how?

Why

Period certain isn't a life option at all: it pays for a set number of years (say 10 or 20) regardless of whether the annuitant lives or dies. If the annuitant dies during the period, a beneficiary collects the rest. Hook: period certain is about a certain period of years, not a lifespan.

Question 8

For a partial withdrawal from a nonqualified deferred annuity, the IRS generally treats the money coming out as what?

Why

Nonqualified annuity withdrawals follow LIFO, last in first out, so the IRS treats the taxable earnings as coming out before your original principal. That means an early withdrawal is taxed as ordinary income until all the gain is used up. Hook: gains come out first and get taxed first, your own basis comes out last.

Question 9

When recommending an annuity, a producer must primarily ensure what?

Why

Annuity suitability rules require the producer to have reasonable grounds that the recommendation fits the consumer's finances, time horizon, liquidity needs, and goals, all gathered before the sale. The focus is the customer's best interest, not the sale itself. Hook: suitability means the product has to fit the person, not the other way around.

Question 10

A structured settlement annuity is commonly used to do what?

Why

A structured settlement annuity takes a lump-sum legal award, say from an injury claim, and turns it into a stream of guaranteed payments, giving the recipient stable long-term income instead of a single check that could be spent too quickly. Hook: it structures a settlement into scheduled payments rather than one lump sum.

6 Federal Tax Considerations — Life, Annuities & Qualified Plans

Question 1

A beneficiary leaves the death benefit with the insurer under an interest-bearing settlement option. What is the tax treatment of the payments?

Why

The death benefit itself stays income-tax-free even when paid out over time, but any interest the insurer credits while holding the money is taxable income to the beneficiary. Hook: the original benefit is tax-free; the earnings on top of it are not, just like interest in any account.

Question 2

A life insurance death benefit may be included in the insured's taxable estate when which of the following is true?

Why

Although the death benefit is income-tax-free, it can still be pulled into the insured's taxable estate if the insured kept incidents of ownership, such as the right to change the beneficiary, take a loan, or surrender the policy. Removing those controls (often through an irrevocable life insurance trust) is how planners keep proceeds out of the taxable estate. Hook: income-tax-free is not the same as estate-tax-free, and control is what drags it into the estate.

Question 3

Are premiums on a personally owned life insurance policy generally deductible on the owner's federal income tax return?

Why

Premiums on personal life insurance are paid with after-tax dollars and are not deductible. The trade-off for that is the income-tax-free death benefit on the back end. Hook: no deduction going in, but a tax-free benefit coming out; the IRS won't let you have it both ways.

Question 4

A life insurance policy becomes a Modified Endowment Contract (MEC) when it does what?

Why

A MEC results when a policy is funded faster than the 7-pay test allows, essentially cramming too much premium in too soon, which Congress decided looked more like an investment than insurance. The death benefit stays income-tax-free, but the living benefits lose their friendly tax treatment. Hook: overfund it past the 7-pay limit and it gets reclassified as a MEC.

Question 5

Under Section 79, how much employer-provided group term life insurance can an employee receive before the cost of the coverage becomes taxable income?

Why

An employee can receive up to $50,000 of employer-paid group term life with no income tax on the cost of that coverage. Above $50,000, the IRS imputes income based on a standard cost table. Hook: $50,000 is the magic line for tax-free group term life, and the cost of anything above it becomes taxable to the employee.

Question 6

When a nonqualified annuity is annuitized, the exclusion ratio determines what?

Why

With a nonqualified annuity, you've already paid tax on the money you put in (your basis), so the exclusion ratio splits each income payment into a tax-free return of that basis and a taxable earnings portion. Hook: the exclusion ratio is the slice of each payment you exclude from tax because it's your own money coming back.

Question 7

How is a distribution from a qualified annuity (funded entirely with pre-tax dollars) generally taxed?

Why

Because a qualified annuity is funded with pre-tax dollars, none of it has been taxed yet, so the whole distribution, contributions and earnings alike, is taxed as ordinary income. There's no basis to exclude. Hook: pre-tax money in means 100% taxable out, with nothing to shield.

Question 8

A qualified distribution from a Roth IRA is treated how for federal income tax?

Why

A Roth IRA flips the deal: you contribute after-tax dollars (no deduction), but a qualified distribution, generally after age 59 1/2 and a five-year holding period, comes out completely tax-free, earnings included. Hook: Roth means no deduction now but tax-free qualified withdrawals later, the mirror image of a traditional IRA.

Question 9

A traditional 401(k) plan primarily lets an employee do what?

Why

A traditional 401(k) is a defined contribution plan in which the employee defers part of their pay pre-tax into the account, often boosted by an employer match, and it grows tax-deferred until withdrawal. Hook: a 401(k) is salary you set aside pre-tax today to be taxed when you draw it out later.

Question 10

A 403(b) plan (tax-sheltered annuity) is generally available to employees of what kind of organization?

Why

A 403(b), or tax-sheltered annuity, is the qualified plan built for public school employees and certain 501(c)(3) nonprofits, working much like a 401(k) but for that sector. Hook: 403(b) is the schools-and-nonprofits version of a 401(k).

7 Accident & Health Insurance Basics

Question 1

Accident and health insurance is designed to cover financial losses arising from which two perils?

Why

A&H insurance exists to handle the two ways your health can cost you money: accidents (sudden injuries) and sickness (illnesses and conditions). Whether the policy pays for medical bills or lost income, those are the two triggering perils. Hook: A&H equals the two perils right in the name, accident and sickness.

Question 2

Disability income insurance is designed primarily to do what?

Why

Disability income coverage doesn't pay medical bills; it replaces a paycheck. When illness or injury keeps you from working, it provides periodic income (usually a percentage of your earnings) so the bills at home still get paid. Hook: disability income protects the paycheck, not the medical bill.

Question 3

Medical expense insurance is designed to do what?

Why

Medical expense insurance pays for the care itself, hospital stays, surgery, doctor visits, and related services, rather than replacing income. It's the bucket most people picture when they hear health insurance. Hook: medical expense pays the providers; disability income pays you.

Question 4

How are disability income benefits typically paid?

Why

Disability income is paid as a stream of periodic payments (usually monthly) for as long as the qualifying disability lasts, up to the policy's benefit period. It functions like a substitute paycheck rather than a one-time payout. Hook: think of it as a replacement salary that keeps coming while you can't work.

Question 5

An accidental death and dismemberment (AD&D) policy pays benefits for which of the following?

Why

AD&D pays only for losses caused by accidents: a death benefit if an accident is fatal, and a scheduled benefit for accidental dismemberment, such as losing a hand, foot, or eyesight. Death or loss from illness isn't covered. Hook: AD&D is strictly accident-driven; both the death and the dismemberment must come from an accident.

Question 6

What is the key difference between a noncancelable policy and a guaranteed renewable policy?

Why

Both require the insurer to keep renewing to a stated age, so neither can drop the insured for health reasons. The difference is price: noncancelable freezes the premium too, while guaranteed renewable lets the insurer raise rates for an entire class. Hook: both guarantee the coverage; only noncancelable also guarantees the premium.

Question 7

Under an optionally renewable policy, the insurer may do what at each renewal date?

Why

Optionally renewable hands the insurer discretion: at each anniversary or renewal date it can decide whether to renew at all and can raise the premium. It's much weaker protection for the insured than guaranteed renewable. Hook: the insurer holds the option, so renewal is its choice at each renewal date.

Question 8

Which renewability classification gives the insured the least security?

Why

A cancelable policy lets the insurer terminate coverage at virtually any time with proper written notice (returning any unearned premium), making it the least secure arrangement for the insured. The other classifications all restrict when, or whether, the insurer can walk away. Hook: cancelable means the insurer can pull the plug almost anytime, so it's the weakest guarantee.

Question 9

A copayment under a health plan is best described as what?

Why

A copayment is a set flat fee, say $25 for an office visit or $15 for a prescription, that the insured pays at the point of service. Unlike coinsurance, it doesn't change with the size of the bill. Hook: a copay is a fixed dollar ticket price per service, not a percentage.

Question 10

Under the Fair Credit Reporting Act, an applicant must be notified when which of the following may be obtained?

Why

The Fair Credit Reporting Act requires that an applicant be told, in advance, that an investigative consumer report, which gathers information on character, lifestyle, and reputation through interviews, may be obtained. The applicant also has the right to learn the nature and scope of the report. Hook: the FCRA guarantees you advance notice that a lifestyle or reputation report may be pulled.

8 Individual A&H Policy Provisions

Question 1

Under the entire contract provision of an individual health policy, the contract consists of what?

Why

The entire contract is just the policy plus the application attached to it. Nothing outside those documents, not the agent's promises and not the company's internal rules, can be made part of the agreement. Hook: if it isn't in the policy or the attached application, it isn't in the contract.

Question 2

After the time limit on certain defenses has passed, how does it affect a claim involving a pre-existing condition that was not specifically excluded?

Why

Once the time limit passes, the insurer loses the right to deny a claim merely because the condition predated the policy, unless that condition was specifically named and excluded by endorsement. It protects insureds from late-discovered, unintentional omissions. Hook: after the clock runs out, an unexcluded pre-existing condition can't be used to refuse the claim.

Question 3

When a lapsed health policy is reinstated, how are accident and sickness losses typically covered?

Why

On reinstatement, accidental injury losses are covered immediately, but sickness is covered only if it begins more than 10 days after the reinstatement date. The 10-day gap on sickness exists to discourage someone from reinstating only because they've just become ill. Hook: accidents covered at once, sickness has to wait 10 days after reinstatement.

Question 4

Under the optional unpaid premium provision, what may an insurer do when a claim is payable and a premium is overdue?

Why

The unpaid premium provision lets the insurer simply subtract any premium then due and unpaid from the benefits it pays out, rather than denying the claim. Hook: the insurer just nets the overdue premium out of the claim check.

Question 5

After receiving notice of a claim, the insurer must furnish claim forms to the insured within how many days?

Why

The insurer has 15 days after notice of claim to send the claimant the forms used to file proof of loss. Hook: notice of claim starts a 15-day clock for the insurer to provide claim forms.

Question 6

If the insurer fails to furnish claim forms within the required time, what may the claimant do?

Why

If the insurer doesn't deliver claim forms on time, the claimant is allowed to submit proof of loss in their own words; any written statement of the nature and extent of the loss will satisfy the requirement. Hook: no forms from the insurer means you can describe the loss in any written form.

Question 7

Under the payment of claims provision, to whom are health insurance benefits generally paid?

Why

Benefits are generally paid to the insured, while any death benefit (such as under AD&D) goes to the named beneficiary, or to the insured's estate if none is named. Hook: living benefits to the insured, death benefits to the beneficiary.

Question 8

The purpose of the proof of loss provision is to do what?

Why

Proof of loss is the supporting documentation, bills, statements, and records, that lets the insurer verify a claim and determine what it owes. Without it, the insurer can't properly evaluate the claim. Hook: proof of loss is the evidence file that backs up the claim.

Question 9

Under the change of beneficiary provision, the policyowner may change the beneficiary at any time unless what is true?

Why

The owner keeps the right to change the beneficiary unless they've named an irrevocable beneficiary, in which case the beneficiary's written consent is required. Hook: revocable means change freely, irrevocable means you need the beneficiary's okay.

Question 10

The free look provision in an individual health policy typically gives the insured how long to return the policy for a full refund?

Why

The free look period, commonly 10 days, lets a new policyowner examine the policy and return it for a full premium refund if they decide it isn't right. Hook: about 10 days to look it over and back out for a full refund.

9 Disability Income & Related Insurance

Question 1

An "any occupation" (any occ) definition of total disability is generally satisfied only when the insured cannot do what?

Why

The any-occupation definition is stricter and more insurer-friendly: you're considered totally disabled only if you can't work in any job that fits your background. It's harder to qualify for benefits than under own occ. Hook: any occ asks whether you can do any suitable job, not just your old one.

Question 2

A residual disability benefit pays an amount based on what?

Why

Residual disability coverage pays a partial benefit scaled to your loss of income, so if a disability cuts your earnings by 40%, you collect roughly 40% of the total disability benefit. It bridges the gap when you can work but not at full capacity. Hook: residual benefits track your percentage of lost income.

Question 3

The elimination period in a disability income policy is best described as what?

Why

The elimination (or waiting) period is the time after a disability begins before benefits start to accrue, functioning like a time deductible. A 90-day elimination period means no benefits for the first 90 days. Hook: the elimination period is the unpaid waiting stretch before benefits begin.

Question 4

An insured with a 60-day elimination period becomes disabled. When do benefits begin to accrue?

Why

No benefits are paid during the elimination period, so with a 60-day elimination period, benefits start accruing only after those 60 days of continuous disability have passed. The insured covers that initial gap themselves. Hook: nothing is paid until the elimination period clock runs out.

Question 5

Individual disability income benefits are most commonly set at roughly what percentage of the insured's earned income?

Why

Insurers typically issue benefits in the range of about 60% to 66 2/3% of gross earned income. Since individually paid benefits are received tax-free, that range often comes close to the insured's after-tax take-home pay. Hook: think roughly two-thirds of income, which lands near net take-home pay.

Question 6

A future increase option (or guaranteed insurability) rider on a disability income policy lets the insured do what?

Why

This rider lets the insured increase coverage at specified times or as income rises, without proving they're still insurable, which is valuable for someone whose health declines but whose earnings grow. Hook: it locks in the right to buy more coverage later, no new medical questions asked.

Question 7

A return of premium rider on a disability income policy provides what?

Why

A return of premium rider refunds part of the premiums paid, less any claims, after a stated number of years, rewarding insureds who stay healthy. It raises the premium in exchange for that potential refund. Hook: stay claim-free and the insurer hands back a chunk of your premiums.

Question 8

A business overhead expense (BOE) disability policy is designed to do what?

Why

Business overhead expense coverage reimburses fixed business costs, rent, utilities, employee salaries, and the like, while the owner is disabled, so the business can keep its doors open. It pays actual covered expenses on a reimbursement basis over a relatively short benefit period and does not replace the owner's own income. Hook: BOE keeps the lights on at the business, not money in the owner's pocket.

Question 9

A disability buy-sell policy provides funds for which purpose?

Why

A disability buy-sell arrangement supplies the money for the remaining owners (or the business) to purchase the share of an owner who becomes permanently disabled, mirroring how a life-insurance buy-sell works at death. Hook: it funds the buyout of a disabled owner's stake in the business.

Question 10

A disability income policy written on an occupational (24-hour) basis covers disabilities that occur where?

Why

Occupational coverage, sometimes called 24-hour coverage, pays for disabilities arising both on and off the job, around the clock. It's broader, and costs more, than nonoccupational coverage. Hook: occupational/24-hour means covered anytime, anywhere, on or off the clock.

10 Medical Plans

Question 1

Basic hospital expense coverage typically provides benefits for what?

Why

Basic hospital expense pays a daily room-and-board benefit (often up to a stated maximum per day and number of days) plus miscellaneous hospital charges like lab work and medications. It doesn't cover the surgeon, which is surgical expense. Hook: hospital expense pays for the bed and the hospital's charges, not the surgeon.

Question 2

A major medical plan has an 80/20 coinsurance feature and a $2,000 out-of-pocket maximum (in addition to the deductible). Once the insured's coinsurance payments reach $2,000 for the year, what happens?

Why

The out-of-pocket maximum (stop-loss) caps the insured's coinsurance share. Once the insured has paid $2,000 in coinsurance, the plan switches to paying 100% of additional covered charges for the rest of the year, protecting against a catastrophic bill. Hook: hit the out-of-pocket max and your 20% share drops to 0%.

Question 3

A health maintenance organization (HMO) is generally financed through what?

Why

An HMO operates on a prepaid basis: members pay a fixed periodic amount and receive comprehensive services from the HMO's providers, who are often paid by capitation (a set fee per member). It shifts the focus from billing per service to managing care within a fixed budget. Hook: an HMO is prepaid care, a flat fee buys a defined set of services.

Question 4

How does an exclusive provider organization (EPO) typically differ from both an HMO and a PPO?

Why

An EPO is a middle ground: like an HMO, it generally covers only in-network providers (no out-of-network benefits except emergencies), but like a PPO, it usually doesn't require a gatekeeper referral to see a specialist. Hook: EPO equals HMO network rules with PPO-style direct specialist access.

Question 5

Managed care plans such as HMOs and PPOs primarily aim to do what?

Why

The whole point of managed care is to rein in costs and coordinate care, using networks, gatekeepers, and utilization review, while still aiming to maintain quality. It's a deliberate contrast to open-ended fee-for-service. Hook: managed care manages both the dollars and the care.

Question 6

Which of the following is true of a health savings account (HSA)?

Why

An HSA belongs to the individual, so it follows them from job to job, the balance rolls over year to year, and it offers strong tax treatment: deductible (or pre-tax) contributions, tax-free growth, and tax-free withdrawals for qualified medical expenses. Hook: an HSA is yours to keep, rolls over, and is tax-favored coming and going.

Question 7

A health reimbursement arrangement (HRA) is funded by whom?

Why

An HRA is funded solely by the employer, which sets aside money to reimburse employees for qualified medical expenses. Because the employer owns it, the rules on carryover and portability are set by the employer. Hook: the employer funds and owns the HRA.

Question 8

Consumer-directed health plans (such as HDHPs paired with HSAs) are designed mainly to do what?

Why

Consumer-directed plans put more decision-making, and more of the early cost, in the consumer's hands, pairing a high deductible with a tax-favored account so people shop more carefully for care. Hook: consumer-directed means you steer the spending, with skin in the game.

Question 9

Precertification (prior authorization) in a managed care plan requires what?

Why

Precertification is a utilization-management tool: the plan reviews and approves certain planned services or admissions in advance to confirm they're medically necessary before agreeing to pay. Emergencies are generally exempt. Hook: precert means getting the plan's green light before non-emergency care.

Question 10

Under federal health reform rules, group and individual plans that offer dependent coverage must generally allow adult children to remain on a parent's plan until what age?

Why

Federal law generally lets young adults stay on a parent's health plan until they turn 26, regardless of student or marital status, when the plan offers dependent coverage. Hook: kids can ride a parent's plan to age 26.

11 Group Health Insurance

Question 1

The enrollment (eligibility) period in a group plan is the window during which an eligible employee may do what?

Why

Once eligible, an employee gets an enrollment period, a limited window often around 31 days, to elect coverage. Enroll on time and no evidence of insurability is required; miss it and they may become a late enrollee. Hook: the enrollment period is your on-time window to sign up without health questions.

Question 2

Under COBRA, who generally pays the premium for the continued coverage?

Why

The person continuing coverage pays the full premium, up to 102% of the group rate, with the extra 2% covering administrative cost. COBRA preserves access to the group plan, but not the employer's subsidy. Hook: you keep the group coverage but pay it all yourself, plus a 2% admin add-on.

Question 3

Under COBRA, if a qualified beneficiary is determined to be disabled, the standard 18-month continuation period may be extended to how long?

Why

A disability determination (under Social Security rules) during the early part of COBRA can extend the 18-month period to 29 months, and the premium during the extension may rise to as much as 150% of the group rate. Hook: disability stretches COBRA from 18 to 29 months, at a higher premium.

Question 4

The conversion privilege in a group health plan generally allows a departing employee to do what?

Why

The conversion privilege lets an employee leaving the group switch to an individual policy without proving insurability, though usually at individual (higher) rates and within a limited application window. It protects coverage for someone who has become uninsurable. Hook: conversion turns group coverage into an individual policy with no health questions, but at individual prices.

Question 5

Under HIPAA, a group health plan generally may not do what?

Why

HIPAA's nondiscrimination rule prohibits a group plan from denying an eligible individual coverage, or charging them more, because of their health status or medical history. Everyone in the eligible group must be treated alike. Hook: HIPAA says a group plan can't single you out for being sick.

Question 6

When an employee is covered as an employee under their own group plan and as a dependent under a spouse's plan, coordination of benefits determines what?

Why

Coordination of benefits assigns one plan as primary (pays first) and the other as secondary (pays the balance up to allowable limits) so the total paid doesn't exceed the actual expense. Your own employer plan is usually primary for you. Hook: COB just sorts out who pays first and who pays the rest.

Question 7

For an active employee age 65 or older covered by both a large employer's group plan and Medicare, which generally pays first?

Why

For active employees age 65 and older at larger employers, the group health plan is primary and Medicare is secondary, under the Medicare Secondary Payer rules. The retiree situation can differ. Hook: still working at a big employer means the group plan leads and Medicare follows.

Question 8

When two group plans coordinate benefits on a $1,000 covered expense, what is the maximum the two plans together will pay?

Why

Coordination of benefits caps the combined payment at 100% of the actual covered expense, here $1,000, no matter how generous each plan is on its own. The primary pays first and the secondary covers the remainder up to that ceiling. Hook: two plans still pay only the real cost, never more than 100%.

Question 9

A professional or trade association can sponsor group coverage for its members as long as the association does what?

Why

Association (or alumni and trade) groups can offer coverage when the association is a bona fide organization formed for reasons other than insurance, with a real purpose, defined membership, and adequate size. Hook: an association group works only if the association is real, not a shell built just to sell coverage.

Question 10

In a self-funded (self-insured) group health plan, who bears the financial risk of paying claims?

Why

In a self-funded plan, the employer assumes the risk and pays claims directly out of its own assets, often using a third-party administrator to process them and stop-loss insurance to cap catastrophic exposure. Hook: self-funded means the employer is effectively the insurer, paying claims itself.

12 Dental & Vision Insurance

Question 1

A scheduled (table of allowances) dental plan pays benefits how?

Why

A scheduled dental plan lists a set dollar benefit for each covered procedure, regardless of what the dentist actually charges. If the bill exceeds the schedule amount, the patient pays the difference. Hook: scheduled dental is a fixed price list, one dollar figure per procedure.

Question 2

A nonscheduled (comprehensive) dental plan typically pays benefits based on what?

Why

A nonscheduled, or comprehensive, dental plan pays a percentage of the UCR charge for each service rather than a fixed dollar amount, so benefits track local prevailing fees. It's the dental version of UCR-based medical coverage. Hook: nonscheduled dental pays a percentage of the going UCR rate, not a fixed table.

Question 3

In a typical dental plan, preventive and diagnostic services such as cleanings, exams, and x-rays are usually covered at what level?

Why

Plans usually cover preventive and diagnostic care at or near 100% with no deductible, because catching problems early is cheaper than treating them later. It's the same prevention logic as in managed medical care. Hook: prevention is usually free (100%, no deductible) because it saves the plan money down the road.

Question 4

Basic restorative dental services such as fillings and simple extractions are commonly covered at roughly what coinsurance level?

Why

Basic restorative procedures typically sit in the middle tier, often paid at around 80%, with the patient covering the remaining 20% after any deductible. Hook: basic care lands in the middle, often about 80% covered.

Question 5

Major dental services such as crowns, bridges, and dentures are most commonly covered at approximately what coinsurance level, and why lower than preventive care?

Why

Major services are usually covered at about 50%, the lowest tier, because they are expensive, so the plan shifts more of the cost to the patient through higher coinsurance. The three-tier 100/80/50 pattern is the classic dental structure. Hook: the bigger and pricier the work, the smaller the share the plan pays, with major care around 50%.

Question 6

Orthodontia coverage in a dental plan is typically characterized by what?

Why

Orthodontia is usually a distinct, optional benefit with its own lifetime maximum (not an annual one) and a lower coinsurance percentage, and it's frequently limited to dependent children. Hook: ortho stands apart, with its own lifetime cap, lower coverage, and often kids only.

Question 7

A dental plan has a $1,500 annual maximum. A patient has already received $1,300 in paid benefits this year and now needs a procedure for which the plan would otherwise pay $400. How much will the plan pay for this procedure?

Why

Only $200 of the annual maximum remains ($1,500 minus the $1,300 already paid), so the plan pays $200 toward this procedure and the patient covers the rest. The annual maximum caps total payments regardless of the individual procedure's coinsurance. Hook: the plan pays only what's left under the annual max, here $200, and the patient absorbs the overage.

Question 8

Which of the following is typically excluded from dental coverage?

Why

Dental plans generally exclude purely cosmetic work, like whitening or veneers done solely for appearance, since it isn't medically necessary. Functional and preventive care is what's covered. Hook: cosmetic-only dental work is on you; the plan covers function, not vanity.

Question 9

A routine vision care plan typically provides benefits for which of the following?

Why

Routine vision coverage handles the everyday eye-care items, periodic exams plus eyewear like lenses, frames, and contacts, usually through allowances and frequency limits. Disease and surgery fall under medical coverage instead. Hook: routine vision means exams and eyewear, not eye disease or surgery.

Question 10

A vision (or dental) discount plan differs from insurance in that it does what?

Why

A discount plan isn't insurance: instead of paying benefits, it gives members access to providers who charge negotiated, reduced fees, and the member pays those lower prices directly. There's no claim or reimbursement. Hook: a discount plan buys you cheaper prices, not insurance benefits.

13 Senior & Special Needs Health Insurance

Question 1

Original Medicare consists of which two parts?

Why

Original Medicare is the combination of Part A (hospital insurance) and Part B (medical insurance). Parts C and D are the private add-on options (Advantage and prescription drugs). Hook: Original Medicare equals A plus B, hospital plus medical.

Question 2

Hospice care for a terminally ill Medicare beneficiary is covered under which part?

Why

Hospice care for the terminally ill is a Part A benefit, focused on comfort and support rather than cure. Hook: hospice rides under Part A, alongside the other inpatient-type benefits.

Question 3

Medicare Part B is best described as what?

Why

Part B is optional; those who want it pay a monthly premium (often deducted from Social Security). Because it's voluntary and carries a premium, beneficiaries must usually take action to enroll, and late enrollment can bring a penalty. Hook: Part B is the part you choose and pay a monthly premium for.

Question 4

A person who delays enrolling in Medicare Part B without qualifying coverage may face what?

Why

Skipping Part B when first eligible, without other qualifying coverage, can trigger a lifelong premium surcharge for late enrollment. It's designed to encourage timely sign-up. Hook: wait too long on Part B and you pay a permanent penalty.

Question 5

A consumer enrolled in a Medicare Advantage (Part C) plan generally cannot also do what?

Why

Medigap is designed to fill gaps in Original Medicare, so it doesn't work with, and shouldn't be sold to, someone on a Medicare Advantage plan. Selling Medigap to an Advantage enrollee is a prohibited practice. Hook: Medigap and Medicare Advantage don't mix, one supplements Original Medicare, the other replaces it.

Question 6

Medicare Part D prescription drug coverage is provided how?

Why

Part D plans are offered by private insurers approved by Medicare, and enrollment is voluntary (with a possible late penalty for delaying). Beneficiaries choose a plan that fits their medications. Hook: Part D is private, optional drug coverage you sign up for.

Question 7

A Medicare Supplement policy generally must include a free look period of how long?

Why

Medigap policies carry a 30-day free look, letting the buyer return the policy for a full refund if they change their mind. It's longer than the typical individual-policy free look. Hook: Medigap gives a generous 30-day free look.

Question 8

Medicaid differs from Medicare primarily in that Medicaid is what?

Why

Medicaid is a joint federal-state program that provides coverage based on financial need, with income and asset limits, rather than on age or work history. Medicare, by contrast, is largely age- or disability-based and federally run. Hook: Medicaid is need-based coverage; Medicare is earned, age-based coverage.

Question 9

Which of the following is true of Medicaid's role in long-term care?

Why

Because Medicare largely excludes long-term custodial care, Medicaid has become a major payer of nursing home and long-term care, but only after a person has spent down assets to qualify under its strict financial limits. Hook: Medicaid is the big long-term-care payer, once you've spent down to qualify.

Question 10

Which of the following is one of the standard activities of daily living (ADLs) used as an LTC benefit trigger?

Why

The six ADLs are bathing, dressing, eating, transferring (moving in and out of a bed or chair), toileting, and continence. They measure basic self-care, not complex tasks like driving or managing finances. Hook: ADLs are the basics, bathing, dressing, eating, transferring, toileting, continence.

14 Federal Tax Considerations — Health Insurance

Question 1

Premiums an individual pays for their own personal health insurance are generally treated how for federal income tax?

Why

Personal health insurance premiums generally aren't deductible, though they may count toward the itemized medical expense deduction if total medical costs clear the AGI threshold. Hook: personal health premiums usually get no deduction, paid with after-tax dollars.

Question 2

Benefits received under a personal medical expense (health) policy that reimburse the insured for medical costs are generally treated how?

Why

Medical expense benefits simply reimburse what you spent on care, so they aren't treated as income and are received tax-free. You can't deduct the same expense the insurer reimbursed, though. Hook: getting paid back for medical bills isn't income, so it's tax-free.

Question 3

For most individuals who do not itemize deductions, personal health insurance premiums provide what tax benefit?

Why

Without itemizing, a typical individual gets no federal deduction for personal health premiums; they're paid with after-tax dollars. (Self-employed individuals are a notable exception, covered separately.) Hook: no itemizing usually means no deduction for your health premiums.

Question 4

Benefits received from an individually owned disability income policy (premiums paid with after-tax dollars) are generally treated how?

Why

Because the insured paid the premiums with after-tax dollars and got no deduction, the disability benefits come back income-tax-free. This is why individual DI benefits aren't reduced by taxes. Hook: after-tax premiums in means tax-free benefits out, the core DI rule.

Question 5

Which principle best summarizes how disability income benefits are taxed based on who paid the premium and how?

Why

The governing rule is symmetry: tax-free premiums going in lead to taxable benefits coming out, and after-tax premiums going in lead to tax-free benefits coming out. It applies across both individual and group disability coverage. Hook: the tax gets paid somewhere, either on the premium or on the benefit, never both and never neither.

Question 6

Employer-paid group health insurance premiums are generally treated how for the covered employee?

Why

The value of employer-paid group health coverage is excluded from the employee's taxable income, so the employee gets the benefit tax-free. This is one of the most valuable tax breaks in the benefits world. Hook: employer-paid health coverage is tax-free to the employee, not counted as wages.

Question 7

Medical expense benefits an employee receives under an employer group health plan are generally what?

Why

Just like individual medical expense benefits, group medical benefits reimburse care and aren't treated as income, so they're tax-free to the employee. Hook: group medical benefits reimburse bills, so they're tax-free.

Question 8

The key factor that determines whether group disability income benefits are taxable to the employee is what?

Why

Taxability of disability benefits turns on how the premiums were funded: pre-tax employer dollars lead to taxable benefits, after-tax employee dollars lead to tax-free benefits. Hook: follow the premium dollars, pre-tax in equals taxable out.

Question 9

An employee receives disability benefits from a plan whose premiums the employer paid entirely and deducted. How should the employee treat those benefits?

Why

Since the employer funded and deducted all the premiums and the employee was never taxed on them, the full benefit is taxable income to the employee. Hook: fully employer-funded DI means a fully taxable benefit.

Question 10

Premiums for a tax-qualified long-term care policy may be treated how for an individual who itemizes?

Why

Premiums for a tax-qualified LTC policy count as deductible medical expenses, but only up to age-based dollar limits and only to the extent total medical costs exceed the AGI floor. Hook: qualified LTC premiums can be deducted, within age caps and the usual medical-expense floor.

The rest of the Missouri Life & Health system

Tap any tool to see how it works.