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Free New Hampshire Life Insurance & Annuities Practice Questions

Real questions in the style of the New Hampshire Life Insurance & Annuities licensing exam, pulled straight from the TESTivity course, each with a plain-English explanation. Start with the New Hampshire-specific rules below, then work the rest, and unlock the full simulator when you're ready to drill.

Questions on exam100
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Test providerPSI
Time limit2 hr
Pass rate40%

That's right — 60% of test-takers do not pass the New Hampshire Life Insurance & Annuities exam on their first attempt. Make sure you're part of the 40% who do.

First-time pass rate: 40% · Source: NAIC, 2024 (most recent available statistics)

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1 Insurance Basics & Foundational Concepts

Question 1

In insurance terms, a 'peril' refers to:

Why

Keep these three straight and you'll bank easy points all day: a peril is the cause of loss (fire, wind, theft), a hazard is something that increases the chance or severity of that loss, and risk is the uncertainty of loss itself. The peril is the thing that actually does the damage.

Question 2

Purchasing an insurance policy is an example of which risk management technique?

Why

Buying insurance is the classic risk transfer: you hand the financial consequences of a loss to the insurer in exchange for a premium. Avoidance means not doing the risky thing at all, retention means keeping the risk yourself (like a deductible), and reduction means lowering the odds or severity (smoke detectors). Insurance equals transfer.

Question 3

The principle of indemnity is best described as:

Why

Indemnity is the whole heartbeat of insurance: you get made whole, not rich. The goal is to put you back where you were financially right before the loss, no better, no worse. That's why you can't insure a $20,000 car for $80,000 and cash in. Insurance reimburses a loss; it doesn't hand out winnings.

Question 4

Adverse selection refers to the tendency of:

Why

Adverse selection is the insurer's headache: the people most likely to have a loss are also the most eager to buy and keep coverage. If underwriting didn't push back, the risk pool would fill up with bad risks and the math would collapse. It's exactly why underwriting and exclusions exist.

Question 5

A reinsurance arrangement in which the reinsurer automatically accepts all risks of a certain type from the ceding insurer is called:

Why

Treaty reinsurance is the automatic, blanket deal: the reinsurer agrees in advance to take a whole category of risks. Facultative is the opposite, case-by-case, where the reinsurer can accept or decline each risk individually. Treaty equals automatic and broad; facultative equals optional and specific.

Question 6

A stock insurance company is owned by its:

Why

A stock insurer is owned by its stockholders (shareholders), who receive taxable dividends when the company profits. Policyholders are just customers. Contrast that with a mutual insurer, which is owned by its policyholders. Stock equals stockholders; mutual equals members/policyholders.

Question 7

Policyholder dividends paid by a mutual insurer are:

Why

A mutual insurer is owned by its policyholders, so a 'dividend' is really a return of overpaid premium, which is why it's generally not taxable. And it's never guaranteed; it depends on the company's results. Stock dividends, by contrast, go to stockholders and are taxable.

Question 8

A policy that pays dividends to its policyholders is referred to as a:

Why

Participating policies 'participate' in the insurer's profits by paying policy dividends, and are typically issued by mutual companies. Nonparticipating policies don't pay dividends and are typically issued by stock companies. The word 'participate' is your tell.

Question 9

An agent who represents only one insurance company and does not own the policy expirations is typically called a:

Why

A captive (or exclusive) agent represents a single insurer, and that insurer owns the book of business. An independent agent represents multiple companies and owns their own expirations (the renewal rights). The ownership-of-expirations detail is the classic distinguisher.

Question 10

The authority specifically granted to an agent in the agency contract is known as:

Why

Express authority is the authority written right into the agency agreement, the powers the insurer explicitly hands the agent. Implied authority fills in the gaps needed to use that express authority, and apparent authority is what the public reasonably assumes. Express equals expressly stated.

2 Life Insurance Basics

Question 1

The most common reason individuals purchase life insurance is to:

Why

At its core, life insurance is income replacement: making sure the people who depend on you financially aren't left stranded if you're gone. Cash value growth, estate planning, and business uses are all real, but protecting dependents' income is the bread-and-butter purpose.

Question 2

All else being equal, paying life insurance premiums monthly instead of annually will result in:

Why

Paying more frequently costs more overall. The insurer loses some investment income and incurs more billing expense, so monthly, quarterly, and semi-annual modes carry small added charges. Annual is the cheapest way to pay. More frequent equals more total dollars.

Question 3

When an agent gathers information and assesses an applicant's insurability at the point of sale, the agent is performing:

Why

Field underwriting is the agent acting as the insurer's first set of eyes: asking the application questions accurately, spotting obvious risks, and deciding whether someone is worth submitting. Good field underwriting saves everyone time and keeps bad risks from clogging the pipeline.

Question 4

An applicant pays the initial premium with the application and receives a conditional receipt. Coverage will generally become effective:

Why

A conditional receipt offers coverage back to the application or exam date, but only on the condition that the applicant turns out to be insurable as applied. If they qualify, they're covered from that earlier date, even if they die before the policy is formally issued. The key word is conditional.

Question 5

If the initial premium is NOT paid with the application, the agent typically must collect the premium and obtain which of the following at policy delivery?

Why

No money up front means no conditional receipt, so coverage doesn't start until the policy is delivered and the first premium is paid. To protect the insurer, the agent collects a statement of good health at delivery, confirming the applicant's health hasn't changed since they applied.

Question 6

An agent completing a life insurance application should:

Why

The application is the foundation of the contract, so the agent records what the applicant actually says, accurately and completely, then has the applicant review and sign it. Guessing at answers, signing for someone, or hiding bad health facts isn't just sloppy, it's misrepresentation, and it can void the policy or cost the agent their license.

Question 7

An applicant who presents a greater-than-average likelihood of loss but is still insurable would most likely be classified as:

Why

The main risk buckets run preferred (better than average, lowest premium), standard (average), substandard or 'rated' (higher risk, higher premium), and declined (uninsurable). A higher-than-average but still insurable applicant lands in substandard, where they're charged extra to reflect the added risk.

Question 8

A 'preferred' risk classification is given to applicants who:

Why

Preferred risks are the gold-star applicants: nonsmokers, healthy weight, clean history, lower-than-average mortality. Because they're cheaper to insure, they earn the lowest premiums. Standard is average, substandard pays more, and declined can't get coverage at all.

Question 9

The Medical Information Bureau (MIB) assists insurers primarily by:

Why

The MIB is a shared database where member insurers post coded information about applicants' health-related findings. If someone fails to disclose a condition on a new application, the MIB can flag the discrepancy. It's a fraud-and-omission check, not a claims payer or rate setter.

Question 10

An insurer wants detailed information about an applicant's existing medical condition from the doctor who treated it. The insurer would request a(n):

Why

An attending physician's statement (APS) comes from the doctor who actually treated the applicant, used when the application or exam flags something needing more detail. An inspection report covers lifestyle and finances; an MVR covers driving. For specific medical history, it's the APS.

3 Life Insurance Policies

Question 1

A key characteristic of term life insurance is that it:

Why

Term is pure, no-frills protection: it covers you for a set period (10, 20, 30 years, or to a certain age) and pays only if you die during that window. No cash value, no investment piece, just the death benefit, which is why it's the cheapest way to buy a big chunk of coverage.

Question 2

Annual renewable term (ART) insurance is characterized by:

Why

Annual renewable term renews every single year with no evidence of insurability needed, but the premium climbs each year as you age and mortality risk rises. It starts cheap and gets pricier over time, the opposite of a level-premium permanent policy.

Question 3

A '20-pay' whole life policy is one in which the policyowner:

Why

Limited-pay whole life compresses the premium payments into a set number of years (20-pay, 30-pay, paid-up-at-65). You pay higher premiums but finish paying sooner, and the policy stays in force for life. Coverage is still permanent; you just stop writing checks early.

Question 4

A defining feature of universal life insurance is:

Why

Universal life is the flexible permanent option: within limits, you can raise or lower premiums, skip a payment if there's enough cash value to cover costs, and adjust the death benefit. That flexibility is the trade-off for fewer hard guarantees than whole life.

Question 5

Universal life is often described as 'unbundled' because the policyowner can see:

Why

Unbundled means transparent: a UL statement breaks out the cost of insurance (mortality), the expense charges, and the interest credited to cash value, all itemized. Whole life bundles these into one premium you never see split apart. UL shows you the moving parts.

Question 6

The cash value of a traditional universal life policy earns interest based on:

Why

A standard (fixed) UL credits the cash value at the insurer's current declared interest rate, which floats with conditions, but it can't drop below a guaranteed minimum floor stated in the policy. So you get upside when rates are good and a safety net when they're not.

Question 7

An equity-indexed (indexed) universal life policy credits interest based on:

Why

Indexed UL ties the interest credited to a market index like the S&P 500, but with guardrails: a floor (often 0%) protects you in down years, and a cap or participation rate limits the upside. You get some market-linked growth without direct market losses, and it's not classified as a security.

Question 8

Compared with individual life insurance, group life insurance typically involves:

Why

Group plans underwrite the group as a whole, not each person, so members usually get coverage with little or no medical underwriting up to a guaranteed issue limit. The large, naturally-formed group spreads the risk, which is why a new employee can often get coverage without an exam.

Question 9

Under federal tax rules, employer-paid group term life insurance premiums are generally tax-free to the employee on the first:

Why

Section 79 lets employees receive up to $50,000 of employer-paid group term life with no taxable income. Coverage above $50,000 creates 'imputed income', a small taxable amount based on an IRS table. So the first $50k is a clean tax-free perk; beyond that, the IRS wants its cut.

Question 10

Most employer-provided group life insurance is written as:

Why

Group life is overwhelmingly annually renewable term: pure, low-cost protection with no cash value, renewed each year for the group. It keeps the employer's cost down and the benefit simple. Permanent group coverage exists but is far less common.

4 Life Insurance Provisions, Options & Riders

Question 1

A lapsed policy is being reinstated. Which of the following is the insurer typically allowed to require?

Why

Reinstatement lets an owner revive a lapsed policy instead of buying a new one, which matters because the old policy keeps its original (lower) issue-age premium. The trade-off: the insurer can ask for evidence of insurability (you still have to be insurable) plus the back premiums with interest. Remember it as prove you're healthy and catch up on what you owe. A new two-year contestable period usually starts on the reinstated coverage.

Question 2

Under the entire contract provision, what makes up the complete agreement between the insurer and the owner?

Why

The entire contract is the policy itself plus a copy of the application attached to it, and nothing else. The insurer can't incorporate by reference some outside document, like its bylaws or underwriting guidelines, to change your rights later, and the agent's side comments don't count. If it isn't in the policy or the attached application, it isn't part of the deal.

Question 3

An insured dies with an outstanding policy loan against their whole life policy. How does this affect the death benefit?

Why

A policy loan borrows against the cash value of a permanent policy, and the insurer can't refuse a properly requested loan up to the available cash value. If the loan isn't paid back it doesn't void anything; the company just subtracts the outstanding balance plus interest from the death benefit. A policy loan is essentially your own money, so at death the company nets it out rather than denying the claim.

Question 4

A primary beneficiary dies before the insured, and the insured then dies. Who receives the death benefit?

Why

Beneficiaries are arranged in line: the primary is first, and the contingent (secondary) is the backup. If the primary isn't living when the insured dies, the proceeds drop down to the contingent beneficiary. The estate only gets involved when no named beneficiary survives. Think contingent equals contingency plan, the backup who steps in.

Question 5

An owner wants to change the beneficiary, but the current designation is irrevocable. What must the owner do?

Why

A revocable beneficiary can be changed anytime at the owner's discretion. An irrevocable beneficiary, by contrast, has a vested right: the owner can't change the beneficiary, or take a loan, surrender, or assign the policy, without that person's written consent. Just read it literally, irrevocable means you can't revoke it without permission, which is a much stronger position for the beneficiary.

Question 6

A policy names three children equally, per stirpes. One child predeceases the insured, leaving two children of their own. At the insured's death, how are proceeds distributed?

Why

Per stirpes means by branch: if a named beneficiary dies first, their share flows down to their own descendants rather than being reabsorbed by the surviving beneficiaries. So the late child's one-third doesn't vanish or get split among the siblings; it goes to that child's kids. Contrast per capita (by head), where only surviving named beneficiaries share. Hook: stirpes sounds like stem or branch, and the share follows the family branch down.

Question 7

An owner uses the policy's cash value as a single premium to buy a smaller whole life policy with no further premiums due. Which nonforfeiture option is this?

Why

With reduced paid-up insurance, the cash value is applied as one lump-sum premium to purchase a fully paid-up policy of the same type, meaning permanent coverage that lasts for life, just at a lower face amount. You keep lifelong protection and never pay another premium. Read the name as a checklist: reduced (smaller face) plus paid-up (no more premiums), and it stays permanent.

Question 8

A policyowner chooses the cash surrender nonforfeiture option. What happens to the coverage?

Why

Cash surrender is the most straightforward option: you take the cash value in hand and the policy ends, with no more coverage. It's the right move when you no longer need the insurance and want the money, but be aware that any gain above total premiums paid can be taxable. Surrender means exactly what it sounds like, you give up the policy entirely in exchange for the cash.

Question 9

A beneficiary wants the proceeds paid out over exactly 10 years. Which settlement option fits?

Why

The fixed period option spreads the proceeds plus interest over a set length of time you choose, say 10 years, and the payment size is simply whatever it takes to empty the fund in that window. Its cousin, fixed amount, instead locks the dollar figure of each payment and lets the time vary. Hook: fixed period, you pick the time; fixed amount, you pick the dollar amount.

Question 10

A beneficiary selects the straight life (life-only) income option and dies after receiving just three payments. What happens to the remaining proceeds?

Why

Straight life income pays the largest monthly check because it's a pure bet on longevity: payments continue for the recipient's lifetime and stop the instant they die, with nothing left for heirs. Die early and the insurer keeps the balance; live a long time and you can collect well beyond the original proceeds. Life only means exactly that, the biggest payment but zero guarantee to anyone else.

5 Annuities

Question 1

Annuitization refers to what?

Why

Annuitization is the switch from saving to spending: the owner converts the accumulated value into a guaranteed income stream and chooses a payout option that sets how long, and to whom, payments run. Once you annuitize, you've generally traded the lump sum for the income. Hook: annuitize means turn the pile of money into a paycheck.

Question 2

In a variable annuity, how do accumulation units differ from annuity units?

Why

A variable annuity tracks your money in accumulation units while you're paying in, and their value rises and falls with the separate-account subaccounts. When you annuitize, those convert into annuity units, which then determine each variable income payment. Hook: accumulation units are the saving-phase scoreboard, annuity units are the paying-phase scoreboard.

Question 3

A fixed annuity guarantees the owner what?

Why

A fixed annuity promises a guaranteed minimum interest rate during accumulation and a fixed, predictable income at payout. The insurer holds these funds in its general account and shoulders the investment risk. Hook: fixed means fixed, guaranteed numbers, prioritizing safety and predictability over upside.

Question 4

In a fixed annuity, who bears the investment risk?

Why

Because the insurer guarantees both the interest rate and the payout amount in a fixed annuity, the insurer, not the owner, carries the investment risk. If the company's general-account investments underperform, it still must honor the guarantee. Hook: the guarantees live with the insurer, so the risk does too.

Question 5

An equity-indexed (fixed indexed) annuity credits interest based on what?

Why

An indexed annuity ties its interest to a market index such as the S&P 500, so it can earn more than a plain fixed annuity in good years, while a guaranteed minimum (a floor) keeps a bad index year from crediting a negative return. Hook: indexed means index-linked upside with a guaranteed floor underneath.

Question 6

A life annuity with a refund feature (cash or installment refund) guarantees what at a minimum?

Why

A refund annuity promises that if the annuitant dies before collecting at least what they paid in, the difference goes to a beneficiary, either as a lump sum (cash refund) or as continued payments (installment refund). It guarantees the premium isn't lost to an early death, in exchange for a somewhat smaller payment than life only. Hook: refund means you or your beneficiary are guaranteed to get back at least what you put in.

Question 7

A joint and survivor annuity continues paying income for how long?

Why

A joint and survivor option covers two lives, typically a couple, and keeps paying until both have died; the survivor continues to receive income (sometimes reduced, like a 50% or two-thirds survivor benefit). Because it spans two lifetimes, each payment is smaller than a single-life option. Hook: payments last until the second death, so the survivor isn't left without income.

Question 8

In a qualified annuity funded with pre-tax dollars, how are distributions generally taxed?

Why

A qualified annuity is funded with pre-tax money (think of one held inside a qualified retirement plan), so no tax has been paid on any of it yet. That means the whole distribution, contributions and earnings alike, is taxed as ordinary income. Contrast a nonqualified annuity, where only the earnings are taxable because the basis was after-tax. Hook: pre-tax in means fully taxable out.

Question 9

A Section 1035 exchange allows an owner to do what?

Why

A 1035 exchange lets an owner swap one contract for a better-suited one, life-to-life, life-to-annuity, or annuity-to-annuity, and carry the cost basis over without triggering tax on the gain. Note it's a one-way street: you can roll a life policy into an annuity, but not an annuity back into life insurance. Hook: 1035 is a tax-free trade-in for a comparable contract.

Question 10

A structured settlement annuity is commonly used to do what?

Why

A structured settlement annuity takes a lump-sum legal award, say from an injury claim, and turns it into a stream of guaranteed payments, giving the recipient stable long-term income instead of a single check that could be spent too quickly. Hook: it structures a settlement into scheduled payments rather than one lump sum.

6 Federal Tax Considerations — Life, Annuities & Qualified Plans

Question 1

A beneficiary leaves the death benefit with the insurer under an interest-bearing settlement option. What is the tax treatment of the payments?

Why

The death benefit itself stays income-tax-free even when paid out over time, but any interest the insurer credits while holding the money is taxable income to the beneficiary. Hook: the original benefit is tax-free; the earnings on top of it are not, just like interest in any account.

Question 2

How are living distributions (such as loans and withdrawals) from a MEC taxed?

Why

Once a policy is a MEC, living distributions are taxed like an annuity: LIFO, so the taxable gain comes out first, and a 10% penalty can apply if you're under age 59 1/2. That's a sharp change from a normal policy, where loans are tax-free. Hook: MEC living benefits are taxed annuity-style, gain first and a possible early-withdrawal penalty.

Question 3

An insured who is certified as terminally ill receives accelerated death benefits from their life policy. How are these benefits generally taxed?

Why

Accelerated (living) benefits paid to a terminally ill insured are generally treated like a tax-free death benefit, since the law recognizes the person is drawing on their own coverage early during a terminal illness. Hook: terminally ill plus accelerated benefits equals tax-free, the same treatment the death benefit itself would receive.

Question 4

A key employee dies and the business collects the death benefit from a key person policy. How are the proceeds generally taxed to the business?

Why

The death benefit a business receives from a key person policy is generally income-tax-free, just like any other life insurance death benefit. That's the payoff for not being able to deduct the premiums. Hook: nondeductible premiums in, tax-free proceeds out, the classic key person trade-off.

Question 5

In a Section 162 executive bonus plan, how are the premium payments treated?

Why

In a Section 162 bonus plan, the employer pays or reimburses the premium on a policy the executive personally owns and treats it as deductible compensation, while the executive reports that amount as taxable income, just like any bonus. The executive owns the policy and its cash value. Hook: it's simply a taxable bonus used to buy insurance, deductible to the employer, taxable to the executive.

Question 6

During the accumulation phase of a nonqualified annuity, the earnings are what?

Why

Like the cash value in life insurance, annuity earnings grow tax-deferred during accumulation; you pay tax only when you take money out. Hook: no tax until you tap it, which is the core appeal of annuity accumulation.

Question 7

Compared with a nonqualified plan, a qualified retirement plan must do what?

Why

A qualified plan must satisfy IRS and ERISA standards, including nondiscrimination rules that prevent it from favoring owners and highly paid employees, in exchange for its tax breaks. A nonqualified plan skips those rules but also skips the upfront tax advantages and can favor select employees. Hook: qualified plans earn tax breaks by following the rules; nonqualified plans trade the breaks for flexibility.

Question 8

Distributions from a traditional IRA funded with deductible contributions are generally taxed how?

Why

A traditional IRA gives you the deduction up front and tax-deferred growth, so distributions are taxed as ordinary income when you take them in retirement. Hook: traditional IRA means a tax break now, taxed later as ordinary income.

Question 9

A qualified distribution from a Roth IRA is treated how for federal income tax?

Why

A Roth IRA flips the deal: you contribute after-tax dollars (no deduction), but a qualified distribution, generally after age 59 1/2 and a five-year holding period, comes out completely tax-free, earnings included. Hook: Roth means no deduction now but tax-free qualified withdrawals later, the mirror image of a traditional IRA.

Question 10

A 403(b) plan (tax-sheltered annuity) is generally available to employees of what kind of organization?

Why

A 403(b), or tax-sheltered annuity, is the qualified plan built for public school employees and certain 501(c)(3) nonprofits, working much like a 401(k) but for that sector. Hook: 403(b) is the schools-and-nonprofits version of a 401(k).

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