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Free North Dakota Accident & Health Practice Questions

Real questions in the style of the North Dakota Accident & Health licensing exam, pulled straight from the TESTivity course, each with a plain-English explanation. Start with the North Dakota-specific rules below, then work the rest, and unlock the full simulator when you're ready to drill.

Questions on exam110
Passing score70%
Test providerPSI
Time limit2 hr 30 min
Pass rate62%

That's right — 38% of test-takers do not pass the North Dakota Accident & Health exam on their first attempt. Make sure you're part of the 62% who do.

First-time pass rate: 62% · Source: NAIC, 2024 (most recent available statistics)

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1 Insurance Basics & Foundational Concepts

Question 1

Cans of gasoline stored in a residential garage are an example of a:

Why

A physical hazard is a tangible condition that increases the likelihood or severity of a loss: gasoline in the garage, a slippery floor, frayed wiring. You can see or touch it. If it's an attitude problem it's morale; if it's dishonesty it's moral; if it's a physical thing sitting there raising the odds, it's physical.

Question 2

The law of large numbers is important to insurers because it:

Why

An insurer can't predict whether your house specifically will burn down, but give them a big enough pool of similar homes and they can predict pretty accurately how many out of the whole group will. That's the law of large numbers: more similar exposures, more reliable predictions. It's the statistical engine that makes pricing coverage possible at all.

Question 3

The principle of indemnity is best described as:

Why

Indemnity is the whole heartbeat of insurance: you get made whole, not rich. The goal is to put you back where you were financially right before the loss, no better, no worse. That's why you can't insure a $20,000 car for $80,000 and cash in. Insurance reimburses a loss; it doesn't hand out winnings.

Question 4

Which of the following is a characteristic of an ideally insurable risk?

Why

Insurers like risks that are accidental (due to chance, not intentional) and definite and measurable (you can pin down when, where, and how much). Add in 'predictable for large groups,' 'not catastrophic to the insurer,' and 'affordable premium,' and you've got the recipe for an insurable risk. A loss someone causes on purpose? Not insurable.

Question 5

The primary purpose of reinsurance is to:

Why

Reinsurance is insurance for insurance companies. The original insurer (the ceding company) hands off part of its risk to a reinsurer so one giant loss doesn't sink it. Individuals never deal with reinsurers directly; it all happens behind the scenes between carriers.

Question 6

A policy that pays dividends to its policyholders is referred to as a:

Why

Participating policies 'participate' in the insurer's profits by paying policy dividends, and are typically issued by mutual companies. Nonparticipating policies don't pay dividends and are typically issued by stock companies. The word 'participate' is your tell.

Question 7

A reciprocal insurance company is managed by a(n):

Why

A reciprocal (an unincorporated group of members who insure each other) is run by an attorney-in-fact. The members are both insureds and insurers to one another. Niche, but the exam likes the 'attorney-in-fact' detail, so tuck it away.

Question 8

An agent who collects premiums on behalf of an insurer holds those funds in a:

Why

Premiums an agent collects belong to the insurer, not the agent, so the agent holds them in a fiduciary capacity, a position of financial trust. Mixing that money with personal funds (commingling) is a big no-no and a fast way to lose a license.

Question 9

Insurance contracts are considered 'unilateral' because:

Why

Unilateral means only one side makes a legally enforceable promise, and it's the insurer, who promises to pay covered claims. The insured doesn't actually promise to keep paying premiums; they just won't get coverage if they stop. One enforceable promise equals unilateral.

Question 10

The voluntary giving up of a known legal right is known as a:

Why

A waiver is voluntarily surrendering a known right, say, an insurer choosing not to enforce a policy condition. Estoppel is the follow-on: once you've waived something, you can be legally prevented (estopped) from later trying to enforce it. Waiver is the giving up; estoppel is being held to it.

2 Accident & Health Insurance Basics

Question 1

Modern accident policies generally define a covered accident using which standard?

Why

Older policies used the stricter accidental means test (the cause had to be unexpected), but the modern trend is the accidental results, or accidental bodily injury, standard, which only requires that the injury be unintended. It's a more generous, claimant-friendly definition. Hook: results, not means; the newer standard looks at the unexpected injury, not the cause.

Question 2

In group health insurance, the master contract is issued to whom?

Why

In group coverage the insurer issues one master contract to the group sponsor (typically the employer), and each covered member receives a certificate of coverage rather than an individual policy. Hook: the employer holds the master contract; employees hold certificates.

Question 3

Which type of coverage insures a group of people who are not individually named, such as passengers on an airline or students on a field trip?

Why

Blanket coverage protects a constantly changing group whose members aren't named individually, like airline passengers, campers, or a sports team. You're covered simply because you belong to the defined group during the covered activity. Hook: a blanket covers whoever happens to be under it, no individual names required.

Question 4

Compared with individual health insurance, group health coverage generally does what regarding underwriting?

Why

Group coverage is underwritten on the group as a whole, its size, industry, and demographics, rather than screening each person's health. That's why an employee can usually enroll without a medical exam during the eligibility window. Hook: group underwriting looks at the group, not each individual's medical history.

Question 5

Under a noncancelable health policy, the insurer generally may do which of the following until the stated age?

Why

Noncancelable is the strongest renewal guarantee for the insured: the insurer can't cancel, can't refuse renewal, and can't raise the premium beyond what the policy already states, all the way to the stated age. Hook: noncancelable locks everything, coverage and premium alike, in the insured's favor.

Question 6

A guaranteed renewable health policy allows the insurer to do what?

Why

Guaranteed renewable means the insurer must renew the policy to the stated age, but it may raise premiums as long as the increase applies to a whole class of policyholders, never singling out one person. Hook: guaranteed renewal of the coverage, but the price can move for the whole class.

Question 7

Under an optionally renewable policy, the insurer may do what at each renewal date?

Why

Optionally renewable hands the insurer discretion: at each anniversary or renewal date it can decide whether to renew at all and can raise the premium. It's much weaker protection for the insured than guaranteed renewable. Hook: the insurer holds the option, so renewal is its choice at each renewal date.

Question 8

Coinsurance in a health policy refers to what?

Why

Coinsurance is the sharing percentage that applies once the deductible is met; an 80/20 plan means the insurer pays 80% and the insured pays 20% of covered charges. It keeps the insured with some skin in the game. Hook: coinsurance is the percentage you and the insurer split after the deductible.

Question 9

A copayment under a health plan is best described as what?

Why

A copayment is a set flat fee, say $25 for an office visit or $15 for a prescription, that the insured pays at the point of service. Unlike coinsurance, it doesn't change with the size of the bill. Hook: a copay is a fixed dollar ticket price per service, not a percentage.

Question 10

A covered medical bill is $5,000. The policy has a $500 deductible and 80/20 coinsurance, and the out-of-pocket maximum has not yet been reached. How much does the insured pay?

Why

First the insured pays the $500 deductible. That leaves $4,500, which the 80/20 coinsurance splits, so the insured pays 20% of $4,500, or $900. Add the deductible and the coinsurance share: $500 + $900 = $1,400, while the insurer pays the remaining $3,600. Hook: deductible first, then your coinsurance percentage of what's left, so $500 plus $900 equals $1,400.

3 Individual A&H Policy Provisions

Question 1

Under the entire contract; changes provision, who has the authority to change the terms of a health policy?

Why

Changes to the contract are valid only when approved in writing by an executive officer of the insurer, and even then they must be noted on or attached to the policy. An agent has no power to waive or alter provisions. Hook: only a company officer can change the deal, never the agent at your kitchen table.

Question 2

The time limit on certain defenses (incontestability) provision generally prevents the insurer from voiding a health policy for misstatements after the policy has been in force for how long?

Why

After the policy has been in force for a set period, commonly two years, the insurer can no longer void it or deny a claim because of misstatements in the application, with fraudulent misstatements being the usual exception. It mirrors the incontestable clause in life insurance. Hook: after about two years, honest application errors can no longer be used against the claim.

Question 3

Under the model uniform provisions, the grace period for a health policy with monthly premiums is generally how long?

Why

The grace period varies with how often premiums are paid: 7 days for weekly premiums, 10 days for monthly premiums, and 31 days for any other mode. The less often you pay, the longer the grace period. Hook: weekly 7, monthly 10, everything else 31, so the rarer the payment, the longer the grace.

Question 4

Under the reinstatement provision, if a lapsed policy's reinstatement application is neither approved nor declined, the policy is automatically reinstated after how many days?

Why

If the insurer requires an application for reinstatement and then neither approves it nor rejects it by sending written notice, the policy is automatically reinstated on the 45th day after the application date. Hook: insurer silence for 45 days equals automatic reinstatement.

Question 5

Under the optional unpaid premium provision, what may an insurer do when a claim is payable and a premium is overdue?

Why

The unpaid premium provision lets the insurer simply subtract any premium then due and unpaid from the benefits it pays out, rather than denying the claim. Hook: the insurer just nets the overdue premium out of the claim check.

Question 6

Under the proof of loss provision, the insured must generally submit proof of loss within how many days of a loss?

Why

Proof of loss, the documentation supporting the claim, must be furnished within 90 days after the loss, or as soon as reasonably possible. It's a longer window than the 20-day notice because it requires more detail. Hook: 20 days to notify, 90 days to prove.

Question 7

Under the legal actions provision, what is the maximum time, generally, that an insured has to bring suit after proof of loss is required?

Why

The insured generally has up to 3 years (5 in some states) from the time proof of loss is required to file a lawsuit, after which the right to sue expires. Hook: at least 60 days before you can sue, no more than 3 years after, that's the legal-action window.

Question 8

Under the change of beneficiary provision, the policyowner may change the beneficiary at any time unless what is true?

Why

The owner keeps the right to change the beneficiary unless they've named an irrevocable beneficiary, in which case the beneficiary's written consent is required. Hook: revocable means change freely, irrevocable means you need the beneficiary's okay.

Question 9

Under the change of occupation provision, if an insured switches to a less hazardous occupation, the insurer will generally do what?

Why

Move to safer work and the insurer reduces the premium to the lower-risk rate, refunding the excess premium already paid for the period. The change works in the insured's favor here. Hook: a safer job means a lower premium and money back.

Question 10

Under the optional intoxicants and narcotics provision, the insurer is generally not liable for a loss that occurs while the insured is what?

Why

This optional provision excludes losses sustained while the insured is intoxicated or using narcotics not taken on a physician's advice. Prescribed and properly used medications don't trigger the exclusion. Hook: losses while drunk or on non-prescribed narcotics aren't covered.

4 Disability Income & Related Insurance

Question 1

An "any occupation" (any occ) definition of total disability is generally satisfied only when the insured cannot do what?

Why

The any-occupation definition is stricter and more insurer-friendly: you're considered totally disabled only if you can't work in any job that fits your background. It's harder to qualify for benefits than under own occ. Hook: any occ asks whether you can do any suitable job, not just your old one.

Question 2

Which definition of total disability is generally more favorable to the insured?

Why

Own occupation is the more favorable, and more expensive, definition, because it pays when you can't do your specific job regardless of whether you could earn a living elsewhere. Any occ, by contrast, sets a much higher bar to collect. Hook: own occ favors the insured, any occ favors the insurer.

Question 3

Under a recurrent disability provision, if an insured returns to work and then becomes disabled again from the same cause within the stated period, the second disability is treated how?

Why

The recurrent disability provision says that a relapse from the same cause within a set time (often six months) counts as a continuation of the prior claim, so the insured doesn't have to satisfy a brand-new elimination period. A later, unrelated disability would start fresh. Hook: same cause, soon after, means it picks up where it left off, no new waiting period.

Question 4

Under a typical waiver of premium provision in a disability income policy, what happens once the insured has been disabled for the required time (often 90 days)?

Why

Once a disability lasts past the waiver's waiting period (commonly 90 days), the insurer waives further premiums for as long as the disability continues, and often refunds any premiums paid during the waiting period. The policy stays fully in force. Hook: stay disabled long enough and the insurer stops charging premiums, sometimes back to day one.

Question 5

Why do disability income policies generally limit benefits to a percentage of the insured's income rather than 100%?

Why

Insurers cap benefits below full income (and below what you'd net after taxes, since the benefits are often tax-free) so the insured always has a financial reason to recover and return to work. Paying 100% could encourage staying disabled, known as malingering. Hook: benefits stop short of full pay so working still beats collecting.

Question 6

A disability income policy with a Social Security offset (integration) provision does what?

Why

An integrated, or offset, plan coordinates with Social Security disability so the combined payment doesn't exceed the target percentage of income; the policy reduces its benefit (dollar-for-dollar or partially) by what Social Security pays. It controls overinsurance and lowers the premium. Hook: the policy's benefit shrinks by whatever Social Security kicks in.

Question 7

A future increase option (or guaranteed insurability) rider on a disability income policy lets the insured do what?

Why

This rider lets the insured increase coverage at specified times or as income rises, without proving they're still insurable, which is valuable for someone whose health declines but whose earnings grow. Hook: it locks in the right to buy more coverage later, no new medical questions asked.

Question 8

A social insurance supplement (SIS) rider pays a benefit under which circumstance?

Why

A social insurance supplement rider is designed to fill the gap if Social Security disability benefits are denied, delayed, or paid at a reduced amount, paying the supplement in their place and stepping down as Social Security pays. Hook: the SIS rider covers the shortfall when Social Security disability falls through or comes up short.

Question 9

A business overhead expense (BOE) disability policy is designed to do what?

Why

Business overhead expense coverage reimburses fixed business costs, rent, utilities, employee salaries, and the like, while the owner is disabled, so the business can keep its doors open. It pays actual covered expenses on a reimbursement basis over a relatively short benefit period and does not replace the owner's own income. Hook: BOE keeps the lights on at the business, not money in the owner's pocket.

Question 10

To qualify for Social Security disability benefits, a worker generally must be unable to do what?

Why

Social Security uses a strict any-occupation standard: the worker must be unable to engage in any substantial gainful activity, and the condition must be expected to last at least 12 months or end in death. Many private claims would not meet this tough definition. Hook: Social Security disability is the strictest test, no substantial work of any kind, lasting a year or fatal.

5 Medical Plans

Question 1

Under a usual, customary, and reasonable (UCR) approach, a surgical claim is generally paid based on what?

Why

UCR ties the allowable benefit to what providers in the same area normally charge for that procedure, rather than to a flat schedule. A charge far above the local norm may not be fully covered. Hook: UCR pays the going local rate, not just any billed amount.

Question 2

Basic hospital expense coverage typically provides benefits for what?

Why

Basic hospital expense pays a daily room-and-board benefit (often up to a stated maximum per day and number of days) plus miscellaneous hospital charges like lab work and medications. It doesn't cover the surgeon, which is surgical expense. Hook: hospital expense pays for the bed and the hospital's charges, not the surgeon.

Question 3

Compared with basic medical expense coverage, major medical insurance is generally characterized by what?

Why

Major medical is built for big claims: it features high (or no) maximum benefits, a deductible, and coinsurance, in exchange for covering a broad range of expenses. The cost sharing is the trade-off for that wide, deep protection. Hook: major medical goes big and broad, with a deductible and coinsurance along the way.

Question 4

A comprehensive major medical plan is best described as what?

Why

Comprehensive major medical merges basic and major medical into one policy, so a single deductible and coinsurance structure covers everything from routine care up through catastrophic claims. Hook: comprehensive equals basic plus major rolled into one plan with one deductible.

Question 5

A health maintenance organization (HMO) is generally financed through what?

Why

An HMO operates on a prepaid basis: members pay a fixed periodic amount and receive comprehensive services from the HMO's providers, who are often paid by capitation (a set fee per member). It shifts the focus from billing per service to managing care within a fixed budget. Hook: an HMO is prepaid care, a flat fee buys a defined set of services.

Question 6

A point-of-service (POS) plan is best described as what?

Why

A POS plan blends the two models: members pick a primary care physician and get the best benefits in network (HMO-style), but they can still go out of network at a higher cost (PPO-style). They decide at the point of service. Hook: POS is the HMO-PPO hybrid, gatekeeper inside, freedom outside for more money.

Question 7

Which of the following is true of a health savings account (HSA)?

Why

An HSA belongs to the individual, so it follows them from job to job, the balance rolls over year to year, and it offers strong tax treatment: deductible (or pre-tax) contributions, tax-free growth, and tax-free withdrawals for qualified medical expenses. Hook: an HSA is yours to keep, rolls over, and is tax-favored coming and going.

Question 8

A traditional flexible spending account (FSA) is generally characterized by what?

Why

An FSA lets an employee set aside pre-tax salary for medical costs, but it traditionally follows a use-it-or-lose-it rule: money not spent by the plan year's end (subject to limited grace or carryover options) is forfeited. Hook: an FSA is pre-tax but use-it-or-lose-it, so don't overfund it.

Question 9

Precertification (prior authorization) in a managed care plan requires what?

Why

Precertification is a utilization-management tool: the plan reviews and approves certain planned services or admissions in advance to confirm they're medically necessary before agreeing to pay. Emergencies are generally exempt. Hook: precert means getting the plan's green light before non-emergency care.

Question 10

Under current federal health reform requirements, individual and small-group plans generally must do which of the following?

Why

Federal reform requires these plans to cover a core set of essential health benefits (things like hospitalization, prescription drugs, maternity, and preventive care) and bars them from denying coverage or claims based on pre-existing conditions. Hook: a guaranteed benefit floor, and no more pre-existing-condition lockouts.

6 Group Health Insurance

Question 1

Community rating sets premiums based on what?

Why

Community rating spreads risk across a wide pool and charges similar rates regardless of any one group's experience, which protects small groups from volatile pricing. It's the counterpart to experience rating. Hook: community rating prices everyone off the shared community pool, not your group alone.

Question 2

The enrollment (eligibility) period in a group plan is the window during which an eligible employee may do what?

Why

Once eligible, an employee gets an enrollment period, a limited window often around 31 days, to elect coverage. Enroll on time and no evidence of insurability is required; miss it and they may become a late enrollee. Hook: the enrollment period is your on-time window to sign up without health questions.

Question 3

In a contributory group plan, where employees pay part of the premium, insurers typically require what minimum level of participation?

Why

Because employees share the cost in a contributory plan, not everyone signs up, so insurers usually require around 75% participation to guard against adverse selection. Hook: contributory plans need roughly three-quarters in to keep the risk pool healthy.

Question 4

In a noncontributory group plan, what level of eligible-employee participation is generally required, and why?

Why

When the employer pays 100% of the premium (noncontributory), insurers require 100% of eligible employees to be covered. Since employees pay nothing and everyone is in, healthy and unhealthy alike, adverse selection nearly disappears. Hook: the employer pays all, so everyone's in, 100% participation.

Question 5

An employee who declines coverage during the initial enrollment period and later wants to join is generally treated as what?

Why

Someone who passes up the on-time enrollment window becomes a late enrollee and may have to provide evidence of insurability or wait until an open enrollment period to join. The penalty discourages waiting until you're sick to sign up. Hook: enroll late and you may have to prove insurability or wait, the cost of not signing up on time.

Question 6

Under COBRA, which qualifying event generally entitles a spouse or dependent to up to 36 months of continuation?

Why

Events such as divorce or legal separation, the covered employee's death, the employee becoming entitled to Medicare, or a child losing dependent status give the spouse or dependents up to 36 months of COBRA continuation. Hook: family-status events like divorce and death stretch COBRA to 36 months for dependents.

Question 7

Under COBRA, an employee who is terminated for which reason is generally NOT entitled to continuation coverage?

Why

Termination for gross misconduct is the key exception; it does not trigger COBRA rights. Ordinary terminations, layoffs, and resignations do qualify. Hook: gross misconduct is the one firing that forfeits COBRA.

Question 8

Under HIPAA, prior health coverage that can reduce a new plan's pre-existing condition exclusion period is known as what?

Why

Creditable coverage is prior, generally continuous, health coverage that gets credited against any pre-existing condition waiting period a new plan might impose, shortening or eliminating it. Hook: creditable coverage is the prior coverage you get credit for when you switch plans.

Question 9

A professional or trade association can sponsor group coverage for its members as long as the association does what?

Why

Association (or alumni and trade) groups can offer coverage when the association is a bona fide organization formed for reasons other than insurance, with a real purpose, defined membership, and adequate size. Hook: an association group works only if the association is real, not a shell built just to sell coverage.

Question 10

A multiple employer trust (MET) or multiple employer welfare arrangement (MEWA) is used to do what?

Why

METs and MEWAs let small employers pool together to obtain group coverage with the buying power and stability of a larger group, something they couldn't easily get alone. Hook: small employers team up through a MET or MEWA to act like one big group.

7 Dental & Vision Insurance

Question 1

A nonscheduled (comprehensive) dental plan typically pays benefits based on what?

Why

A nonscheduled, or comprehensive, dental plan pays a percentage of the UCR charge for each service rather than a fixed dollar amount, so benefits track local prevailing fees. It's the dental version of UCR-based medical coverage. Hook: nonscheduled dental pays a percentage of the going UCR rate, not a fixed table.

Question 2

In a typical dental plan, preventive and diagnostic services such as cleanings, exams, and x-rays are usually covered at what level?

Why

Plans usually cover preventive and diagnostic care at or near 100% with no deductible, because catching problems early is cheaper than treating them later. It's the same prevention logic as in managed medical care. Hook: prevention is usually free (100%, no deductible) because it saves the plan money down the road.

Question 3

Major dental services such as crowns, bridges, and dentures are most commonly covered at approximately what coinsurance level, and why lower than preventive care?

Why

Major services are usually covered at about 50%, the lowest tier, because they are expensive, so the plan shifts more of the cost to the patient through higher coinsurance. The three-tier 100/80/50 pattern is the classic dental structure. Hook: the bigger and pricier the work, the smaller the share the plan pays, with major care around 50%.

Question 4

Orthodontia coverage in a dental plan is typically characterized by what?

Why

Orthodontia is usually a distinct, optional benefit with its own lifetime maximum (not an annual one) and a lower coinsurance percentage, and it's frequently limited to dependent children. Hook: ortho stands apart, with its own lifetime cap, lower coverage, and often kids only.

Question 5

A dental plan has a $1,500 annual maximum. A patient has already received $1,300 in paid benefits this year and now needs a procedure for which the plan would otherwise pay $400. How much will the plan pay for this procedure?

Why

Only $200 of the annual maximum remains ($1,500 minus the $1,300 already paid), so the plan pays $200 toward this procedure and the patient covers the rest. The annual maximum caps total payments regardless of the individual procedure's coinsurance. Hook: the plan pays only what's left under the annual max, here $200, and the patient absorbs the overage.

Question 6

Predetermination of benefits (pretreatment review) in a dental plan lets the patient and dentist do what before major work begins?

Why

With predetermination, the dentist submits the proposed treatment plan and the insurer estimates what it will cover before the work is done, so there are no payment surprises. It's recommended for expensive procedures. Hook: predetermination is a no-surprises preview of what the plan will pay.

Question 7

Under a least expensive alternative treatment (alternate benefit) provision, how does the plan pay when more than one acceptable treatment exists?

Why

The alternate benefit (LEAT) provision lets the plan calculate its payment based on the cheapest treatment that would adequately do the job. If the patient chooses a pricier option, they pay the difference. Hook: the plan pays for the cheapest adequate fix; upgrades are on the patient.

Question 8

A routine vision care plan typically provides benefits for which of the following?

Why

Routine vision coverage handles the everyday eye-care items, periodic exams plus eyewear like lenses, frames, and contacts, usually through allowances and frequency limits. Disease and surgery fall under medical coverage instead. Hook: routine vision means exams and eyewear, not eye disease or surgery.

Question 9

A patient is treated for glaucoma, an eye disease. Under which coverage is this care most likely paid?

Why

Treatment of eye disease or injury, like glaucoma, cataracts, or an eye infection, is medical care and is covered under the health plan, not the routine vision plan, which handles only exams and eyewear. Hook: disease and injury to the eye go through medical coverage; routine vision handles glasses and checkups.

Question 10

A managed vision care plan that contracts with providers paid on a per-member basis and requires members to use those providers most resembles which model?

Why

A managed vision plan that pays providers a fixed amount per member and limits members to its network mirrors the HMO/capitation model, trading provider choice for lower cost. Hook: capitation plus a required network equals the HMO model, applied to vision.

8 Senior & Special Needs Health Insurance

Question 1

Medicare eligibility is generally available to U.S. citizens and qualified residents beginning at what age?

Why

Medicare's standard eligibility age is 65, the same age tied to its origins alongside Social Security. Certain younger people qualify too, such as those who have received Social Security disability for the required period. Hook: 65 is the magic Medicare age.

Question 2

For most people already receiving Social Security, enrollment in Medicare Part A at age 65 is generally what?

Why

People already drawing Social Security are usually enrolled in Part A automatically at 65, since Part A is premium-free for those with enough work credits. Part B enrollment may require action because it carries a premium. Hook: Part A usually arrives automatically when you're already on Social Security.

Question 3

Medicare Part B is best described as what?

Why

Part B is optional; those who want it pay a monthly premium (often deducted from Social Security). Because it's voluntary and carries a premium, beneficiaries must usually take action to enroll, and late enrollment can bring a penalty. Hook: Part B is the part you choose and pay a monthly premium for.

Question 4

A person who delays enrolling in Medicare Part B without qualifying coverage may face what?

Why

Skipping Part B when first eligible, without other qualifying coverage, can trigger a lifelong premium surcharge for late enrollment. It's designed to encourage timely sign-up. Hook: wait too long on Part B and you pay a permanent penalty.

Question 5

A consumer enrolled in a Medicare Advantage (Part C) plan generally cannot also do what?

Why

Medigap is designed to fill gaps in Original Medicare, so it doesn't work with, and shouldn't be sold to, someone on a Medicare Advantage plan. Selling Medigap to an Advantage enrollee is a prohibited practice. Hook: Medigap and Medicare Advantage don't mix, one supplements Original Medicare, the other replaces it.

Question 6

Medicare Part D prescription drug coverage is provided how?

Why

Part D plans are offered by private insurers approved by Medicare, and enrollment is voluntary (with a possible late penalty for delaying). Beneficiaries choose a plan that fits their medications. Hook: Part D is private, optional drug coverage you sign up for.

Question 7

A Medicare Supplement (Medigap) policy is designed to do what?

Why

Medigap policies, sold by private insurers, pay some or all of the out-of-pocket costs Original Medicare leaves behind, like the Part A deductible and the Part B 20% coinsurance. They work alongside Original Medicare, not in place of it. Hook: Medigap fills the holes Original Medicare leaves.

Question 8

A Medicare Supplement policy generally must include a free look period of how long?

Why

Medigap policies carry a 30-day free look, letting the buyer return the policy for a full refund if they change their mind. It's longer than the typical individual-policy free look. Hook: Medigap gives a generous 30-day free look.

Question 9

Long-term care insurance commonly covers care delivered in which range of settings?

Why

Modern LTC policies cover care across a spectrum of settings, skilled nursing facilities, assisted living, adult day care centers, and care provided in the insured's own home, reflecting how people actually receive long-term care. Hook: good LTC follows the care wherever it happens, from a nursing home to your own living room.

Question 10

The elimination period in a long-term care policy functions as what?

Why

Like the elimination period in disability income coverage, the LTC elimination period is the number of days at the start of care the insured pays out of pocket before policy benefits begin; a longer one lowers the premium. Hook: the elimination period is the upfront waiting stretch before LTC benefits start.

9 Federal Tax Considerations — Health Insurance

Question 1

For most individuals who do not itemize deductions, personal health insurance premiums provide what tax benefit?

Why

Without itemizing, a typical individual gets no federal deduction for personal health premiums; they're paid with after-tax dollars. (Self-employed individuals are a notable exception, covered separately.) Hook: no itemizing usually means no deduction for your health premiums.

Question 2

Premiums paid by an individual for a personally owned disability income policy are generally treated how?

Why

Premiums for an individually owned disability income policy are not deductible; they're paid with after-tax dollars. That sets up the favorable treatment of the benefits. Hook: no deduction for personal DI premiums, you pay them after tax.

Question 3

If employees pay their own group disability income premiums with after-tax dollars, the benefits they later receive are generally what?

Why

When employees fund the premiums themselves with after-tax money, the resulting disability benefits come back tax-free, the same logic as an individually owned policy. Hook: employees paying after-tax premiums collect their DI benefits tax-free.

Question 4

Employer-paid group health insurance premiums are generally treated how for the covered employee?

Why

The value of employer-paid group health coverage is excluded from the employee's taxable income, so the employee gets the benefit tax-free. This is one of the most valuable tax breaks in the benefits world. Hook: employer-paid health coverage is tax-free to the employee, not counted as wages.

Question 5

Medical expense benefits an employee receives under an employer group health plan are generally what?

Why

Just like individual medical expense benefits, group medical benefits reimburse care and aren't treated as income, so they're tax-free to the employee. Hook: group medical benefits reimburse bills, so they're tax-free.

Question 6

In a group disability plan where the employer pays 60% of the premium and employees pay 40% with after-tax dollars, how are benefits generally taxed?

Why

When premiums are split, the benefits are taxed in proportion: the part attributable to the employer's deducted premium is taxable, and the part attributable to the employees' after-tax contributions is tax-free. Here that's about 60% taxable and 40% tax-free. Hook: split the premium, split the tax, in the same proportions.

Question 7

The key factor that determines whether group disability income benefits are taxable to the employee is what?

Why

Taxability of disability benefits turns on how the premiums were funded: pre-tax employer dollars lead to taxable benefits, after-tax employee dollars lead to tax-free benefits. Hook: follow the premium dollars, pre-tax in equals taxable out.

Question 8

For a key person disability income policy owned by and payable to the business, how are the premiums and benefits generally treated?

Why

Key person DI premiums are not deductible (the business is also the beneficiary), and the benefits the business receives are income-tax-free, the same nondeductible-in, tax-free-out pattern as key person life insurance. Hook: key person coverage, no deduction in, tax-free out.

Question 9

Premiums for a disability buy-sell policy are generally treated how?

Why

Disability buy-sell premiums are not deductible, much like a life insurance buy-sell, and the benefits used to fund the buyout are received income-tax-free. Hook: buy-sell premiums aren't deductible, but the buyout funds come tax-free.

Question 10

A health savings account (HSA) is sometimes called triple tax-advantaged because of which combination?

Why

The HSA's triple advantage is contributions that are deductible or pre-tax, earnings that grow tax-free, and withdrawals that are tax-free when used for qualified medical expenses. Few accounts offer all three. Hook: HSA equals a tax break going in, growing, and coming out, all three.

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