Question 1
A North Dakota resident life and health license is renewed with:
North Dakota requires 24 CE hours per two-year cycle, 3 of them ethics. Hook: 24 a cycle, 3 in ethics.
Free Practice
Real questions in the style of the North Dakota Life, Accident & Health licensing exam, pulled straight from the TESTivity course, each with a plain-English explanation. Start with the North Dakota-specific rules below, then work the rest, and unlock the full simulator when you're ready to drill.
That's right — 40% of test-takers do not pass the North Dakota Life, Accident & Health exam on their first attempt. Make sure you're part of the 60% who do.
First-time pass rate: 60% · Source: NAIC, 2024 (most recent available statistics) · Basis: Life + Health exams combined
Question 1
A North Dakota resident life and health license is renewed with:
North Dakota requires 24 CE hours per two-year cycle, 3 of them ethics. Hook: 24 a cycle, 3 in ethics.
Question 2
North Dakota's free look period for a replacement individual life policy is:
North Dakota's free look is 10 days on a standard individual life policy and 30 days on a replacement. Hook: replacement extends North Dakota's free look to 30 days.
Question 3
After how long can a North Dakota insurer no longer contest a life policy for misstatements in the application?
North Dakota follows the model 2-year incontestability period (with 30-day grace, 3-year reinstatement, and a 2-year suicide clause). Hook: past 2 years the application is locked in.
Question 4
A North Dakota producer writing replacement business is required to:
Replacement duties center on disclosure - a written notice to the buyer and notice to the insurer being replaced. Hook: notice to the client, notice to the old insurer.
Question 5
North Dakota's guaranty association protects a life policy's cash surrender value up to:
North Dakota uses the NAIC-model ladder: $300K life, $100K cash value, $250K annuity, $500K health, with no use as a sales tool. Hook: cash value caps at $100K.
Question 6
An employee of a North Dakota firm with 15 employees loses group coverage. North Dakota's state continuation runs up to:
North Dakota offers up to 18 months of state continuation for employees of small employers (2 to 19 employees), at up to 102% of the group rate with a 30-day election - among the longest mini-continuation windows. Hook: North Dakota's mini-continuation goes a full 18 months, matching federal COBRA's standard span.
Question 7
The North Dakota Insurance Department can act against a licensee by choosing to:
The NDID licenses, examines, and resolves complaints, enforcing through fines, suspension, revocation, and cease-and-desist orders. Hook: it examines and penalizes, up to taking the license.
Question 8
Medicare Part A and Part B are commonly known as:
Part A is hospital insurance (inpatient care) and Part B is medical insurance (physician and outpatient services). Part C is Medicare Advantage and Part D is prescription drugs. Hook: A is hospital, B is medical, the core of Medicare.
Question 9
Medicaid differs from Medicare in that Medicaid is:
Medicaid is funded jointly by the federal government and the states and covers eligible low-income individuals and families, with states administering the program within federal rules. Hook: Medicaid is need-based and run jointly by the feds and the states.
Question 10
Medicare Supplement (Medigap) policies are notable because they are:
Medigap plans are standardized into lettered plans with federally defined benefits, so the same plan letter delivers the same core benefits no matter which insurer sells it, which makes comparison shopping focus on price and service. Hook: Medigap is standardized by letter, same benefits whoever sells it.
Practice Modes
Same questions as the chapters below, re-dealt as a real test. Nothing to sign up for.
A timed, scored run with no hints — the way test day actually feels.
Answer, find out immediately, read why. Best for learning the material.
Fresh shuffle every time you start.
Drill only the chapters that are costing you points.
Keeps your selection.
Just want to study with the answers showing? Every chapter on this page is open-book review mode — open one and start reading.
Question 1
A hazard is best defined as:
A hazard doesn't cause the loss itself; it just makes a loss more likely or more severe. Icy steps, frayed wiring, a careless attitude: none of those start the fire or the fall, but they tip the odds. Causes of loss are perils; hazards just stack the deck.
Question 2
The law of large numbers is important to insurers because it:
An insurer can't predict whether your house specifically will burn down, but give them a big enough pool of similar homes and they can predict pretty accurately how many out of the whole group will. That's the law of large numbers: more similar exposures, more reliable predictions. It's the statistical engine that makes pricing coverage possible at all.
Question 3
Purchasing an insurance policy is an example of which risk management technique?
Buying insurance is the classic risk transfer: you hand the financial consequences of a loss to the insurer in exchange for a premium. Avoidance means not doing the risky thing at all, retention means keeping the risk yourself (like a deductible), and reduction means lowering the odds or severity (smoke detectors). Insurance equals transfer.
Question 4
Adverse selection refers to the tendency of:
Adverse selection is the insurer's headache: the people most likely to have a loss are also the most eager to buy and keep coverage. If underwriting didn't push back, the risk pool would fill up with bad risks and the math would collapse. It's exactly why underwriting and exclusions exist.
Question 5
A reinsurance arrangement in which the reinsurer automatically accepts all risks of a certain type from the ceding insurer is called:
Treaty reinsurance is the automatic, blanket deal: the reinsurer agrees in advance to take a whole category of risks. Facultative is the opposite, case-by-case, where the reinsurer can accept or decline each risk individually. Treaty equals automatic and broad; facultative equals optional and specific.
Question 6
In a reinsurance transaction, the insurer that transfers risk to the reinsurer is known as the:
The company giving away (ceding) the risk is the ceding company; the company taking it on is the reinsurer. Easy hook: to 'cede' is to give up, so the one giving up the risk is the ceding company.
Question 7
For the law of large numbers to work effectively, the exposures in a group should be:
The law of large numbers needs lots of similar exposures to make predictions reliable. A big pool of comparable homes lets the insurer forecast losses; a handful of wildly different ones doesn't. And concentrating them all in one spot is actually bad: one hurricane could wipe out the whole pool at once.
Question 8
A stock insurance company is owned by its:
A stock insurer is owned by its stockholders (shareholders), who receive taxable dividends when the company profits. Policyholders are just customers. Contrast that with a mutual insurer, which is owned by its policyholders. Stock equals stockholders; mutual equals members/policyholders.
Question 9
A policy that pays dividends to its policyholders is referred to as a:
Participating policies 'participate' in the insurer's profits by paying policy dividends, and are typically issued by mutual companies. Nonparticipating policies don't pay dividends and are typically issued by stock companies. The word 'participate' is your tell.
Question 10
An insurer that has been granted a certificate of authority to do business in a state is known as a(n):
An admitted (or authorized) insurer holds a certificate of authority from the state and plays by that state's rules. A non-admitted (unauthorized) insurer hasn't been granted one, which is where surplus lines come in for hard-to-place risks. Also worth knowing: domestic equals home state, foreign equals another state, alien equals another country.
Question 1
A business purchases life insurance on its most valuable employee to protect against the financial loss of that person's death. This is known as:
Key person (or key employee) insurance protects the business itself against losing someone whose death would really hurt the bottom line. The business owns the policy, pays the premiums, and is the beneficiary. If the key person dies, the company gets funds to cover the disruption and find a replacement.
Question 2
Which of the following is a common personal use of life insurance?
On the personal side, life insurance commonly covers final expenses, replaces lost income for a family, pays off a mortgage, and provides liquidity so heirs can cover estate taxes without selling assets in a hurry. Insuring equipment or buildings is property insurance, not life.
Question 3
When calculating life insurance needs, an agent should subtract which of the following from the total need?
You don't insure what's already covered. After totaling the family's needs, subtract the resources they already have: savings, investments, existing life insurance, Social Security survivor benefits. What's left is the true coverage gap the new policy should fill.
Question 4
The three primary factors used to calculate a life insurance premium are mortality, interest, and:
Life premiums rest on three legs: mortality (the expected cost of paying claims), interest (what the insurer earns investing your premium, which lowers the cost), and expenses (the loading for operating costs). Mortality pushes premium up, interest pulls it down, expenses add the overhead.
Question 5
The 'loading' added to a net premium to arrive at the gross premium covers the insurer's:
Net premium covers mortality and interest. Loading is the extra piled on top for the insurer's expenses, commissions, overhead, and margin, so net premium plus loading equals the gross premium you actually pay. Loading equals the cost of doing business.
Question 6
Under a level premium whole life policy, premiums in the early years are:
Level premium smooths a rising cost into a flat payment. In the early years you overpay relative to the true cost of insurance; the insurer banks that excess into reserves (which fuel cash value). In later years, when the real cost would skyrocket, those reserves cover the gap. That's the magic of level premium.
Question 7
A participating life insurance policy is one that:
A participating policy lets the owner 'participate' in the insurer's favorable results through policy dividends, typically from mutual companies. Nonparticipating policies pay no dividends and usually come from stock companies. If it pays a dividend, it participates.
Question 8
If the initial premium is NOT paid with the application, the agent typically must collect the premium and obtain which of the following at policy delivery?
No money up front means no conditional receipt, so coverage doesn't start until the policy is delivered and the first premium is paid. To protect the insurer, the agent collects a statement of good health at delivery, confirming the applicant's health hasn't changed since they applied.
Question 9
When a new life insurance policy will replace an existing one, the producer is generally required to:
Replacement is heavily regulated because it can hurt the consumer (a new contestable period, new surrender charges, lost benefits). Producers must follow replacement rules: notify the existing insurer, give the client required disclosure notices, and make sure the swap is actually in the client's interest, not just the agent's.
Question 10
An inspection report ordered during underwriting typically provides information about the applicant's:
An inspection report (often from a consumer reporting agency) paints a general picture: lifestyle, finances, habits, reputation, usually for larger policies. It's not a medical record (that's the APS or exam) and not a driving record (that's the MVR). Think background sketch, not diagnosis.
Question 1
Under a level term policy, which of the following remains constant during the term?
Level term keeps both the death benefit and the premium flat for the whole term, the most common and predictable flavor. Contrast that with decreasing term (benefit drops, premium level) and increasing term (benefit rises). 'Level' means nothing moves while the term runs.
Question 2
Ordinary (straight) whole life insurance requires premium payments:
Ordinary, straight, or continuous-premium whole life spreads premiums across the insured's entire life, you pay until death or maturity. It has the lowest premium of the whole life family because payments are stretched out the longest. Limited-pay and single-premium just compress that schedule.
Question 3
Under Universal Life Option B (increasing death benefit), the death benefit equals:
UL gives two death-benefit flavors. Option A (level) keeps the death benefit flat, so as cash value grows the pure-insurance portion shrinks. Option B (increasing) pays the face amount plus the cash value, so the total benefit grows. Option B costs more because the insurer's at-risk amount stays higher.
Question 4
The cash value of a traditional universal life policy earns interest based on:
A standard (fixed) UL credits the cash value at the insurer's current declared interest rate, which floats with conditions, but it can't drop below a guaranteed minimum floor stated in the policy. So you get upside when rates are good and a safety net when they're not.
Question 5
In a variable life insurance policy, the investment risk is borne by:
Variable life puts the cash value into separate-account subaccounts (mutual-fund-like options) that the policyowner chooses, so the policyowner carries the investment risk and reward. Strong markets grow the cash value and death benefit; poor markets shrink them. That's the opposite of whole life's guarantees.
Question 6
To sell variable life insurance, a producer must hold:
Because variable products are regulated as securities, selling them takes a dual qualification: a state life insurance license plus a FINRA securities registration. A plain life license alone isn't enough. The investment component is what triggers the securities rules.
Question 7
In group life insurance, the contract is issued to the:
Group life works off a single master contract issued to the employer or sponsoring organization. Individual members don't get their own policy, they get a certificate of coverage showing they're insured under the group plan. One contract, many certificate holders.
Question 8
An employee who leaves a job covered by group life insurance generally has the right to:
Group term life carries a conversion privilege: when you leave, you can convert to an individual permanent policy without proving insurability, typically within 31 days, though at individual rates for your age. It's a lifeline for someone who's become hard to insure, even though it usually costs more.
Question 9
Under federal tax rules, employer-paid group term life insurance premiums are generally tax-free to the employee on the first:
Section 79 lets employees receive up to $50,000 of employer-paid group term life with no taxable income. Coverage above $50,000 creates 'imputed income', a small taxable amount based on an IRS table. So the first $50k is a clean tax-free perk; beyond that, the IRS wants its cut.
Question 10
Most employer-provided group life insurance is written as:
Group life is overwhelmingly annually renewable term: pure, low-cost protection with no cash value, renewed each year for the group. It keeps the employer's cost down and the benefit simple. Permanent group coverage exists but is far less common.
Question 1
A policyowner receives a new life insurance policy and decides within the free look period that it isn't right for them. What are they entitled to do?
The free look (sometimes called the right-to-examine period) lets the owner return the policy within a set number of days, usually 10, for a full refund of every dollar paid. Think of it like a receipt-in-hand store return: you get cash back, not a store credit. It exists because a life policy is a big commitment people often buy on an agent's recommendation, so the law builds in a cooling-off window.
Question 2
An insured dies during the policy's grace period without having paid the overdue premium. What does the insurer do?
The grace period (commonly about a month, often 30 or 31 days) keeps the policy in force even after a premium is missed, so coverage doesn't lapse the moment a payment is late. If the insured dies during that window the company still pays; it just subtracts the premium that was owed. The grace period protects against accidental lapse, and the only catch at death is the company collecting what it was already due.
Question 3
A lapsed policy is being reinstated. Which of the following is the insurer typically allowed to require?
Reinstatement lets an owner revive a lapsed policy instead of buying a new one, which matters because the old policy keeps its original (lower) issue-age premium. The trade-off: the insurer can ask for evidence of insurability (you still have to be insurable) plus the back premiums with interest. Remember it as prove you're healthy and catch up on what you owe. A new two-year contestable period usually starts on the reinstated coverage.
Question 4
A policyowner transfers only partial rights in their policy to a bank as security for a loan. This is an example of what?
A collateral assignment is a partial, temporary transfer: you pledge the policy (usually its death benefit up to the loan amount) as collateral, and once the debt is paid the rights revert to you. Compare that to an absolute assignment, which is a complete, permanent transfer of ownership. Easy hook: collateral assignment is literally as collateral for a loan (partial), while absolute means absolutely everything (full).
Question 5
Why is naming a minor as the direct beneficiary of a life insurance policy generally problematic?
A minor can absolutely be named, but an insurer won't hand a large check to a child who can't legally give a valid receipt. Without planning, a court has to appoint a guardian to manage the money, which is slow, costly, and out of the family's control. That's why people set up a trust or custodial arrangement, or name a trusted adult to manage it. Minors can inherit; they just can't legally sign for it, so arrange a manager in advance.
Question 6
Nonforfeiture options exist to protect what when a permanent policy is surrendered or lapses?
Nonforfeiture options guarantee that the cash value you've built in a permanent policy can't be forfeited if you stop paying. Instead of the company keeping it, you choose the form in which you take it. The word says it all: non-forfeiture means you don't forfeit your cash value. It's yours, and these options just decide what shape it takes.
Question 7
An owner uses the policy's cash value as a single premium to buy a smaller whole life policy with no further premiums due. Which nonforfeiture option is this?
With reduced paid-up insurance, the cash value is applied as one lump-sum premium to purchase a fully paid-up policy of the same type, meaning permanent coverage that lasts for life, just at a lower face amount. You keep lifelong protection and never pay another premium. Read the name as a checklist: reduced (smaller face) plus paid-up (no more premiums), and it stays permanent.
Question 8
If a policyowner stops paying premiums and selects no nonforfeiture option, what typically happens by default in most policies?
Extended term insurance is the standard automatic (default) nonforfeiture option. The cash value buys term coverage at the same face amount, lasting only as long as that value will fund it. The owner keeps full death-benefit protection for a limited stretch with no further premiums. The default keeps the same face amount but trades forever for a fixed term.
Question 9
Policy dividends from a participating (par) whole life policy are best described as what?
A participating policy can pay dividends, but they're not investment earnings, they're treated as a return of premium the company overcharged, which is exactly why they're generally not taxable. And because they depend on the insurer's actual experience (mortality, expenses, investment results), they're never guaranteed. A dividend is your own money coming back, not a profit the company promises.
Question 10
A beneficiary selects the straight life (life-only) income option and dies after receiving just three payments. What happens to the remaining proceeds?
Straight life income pays the largest monthly check because it's a pure bet on longevity: payments continue for the recipient's lifetime and stop the instant they die, with nothing left for heirs. Die early and the insurer keeps the balance; live a long time and you can collect well beyond the original proceeds. Life only means exactly that, the biggest payment but zero guarantee to anyone else.
Question 1
An annuity is often described as the mirror image of life insurance because it protects against the risk of what?
Life insurance hedges the risk of dying too soon and leaving dependents short. An annuity hedges the opposite risk: living too long and running out of money. That's why an annuity is essentially a vehicle for the systematic liquidation of an estate, turning a sum of money into income you can't outlive. Easy hook: life insurance is for dying too soon, an annuity is for living too long.
Question 2
In an annuity contract, the annuitant is the person whose what determines the size of the payout?
The annuitant is the measuring life: their age and life expectancy drive how big each income payment is, because the insurer is calculating how long it will likely have to pay. The annuitant is often, but not always, the same person as the owner. Think of the annuitant as the yardstick the insurer measures the payout against.
Question 3
A flexible premium deferred annuity allows the owner to do what?
A flexible premium annuity lets you fund it on your own schedule, more this year, less or nothing next, rather than with one fixed lump sum. By definition these are deferred, because you can't keep adding money to a contract that's already paying out. Hook: flexible premium equals flexible deposits, and it's always a deferred contract.
Question 4
A single premium annuity is funded how?
A single premium annuity is bought with one lump sum up front and takes no further deposits. It can be immediate (income starts now) or deferred (income later), but either way the funding is one-and-done. Hook: single premium means a single payment buys the whole contract.
Question 5
Premiums paid into a variable annuity are placed in what?
Variable annuity money goes into the insurer's separate account, where the owner allocates it among subaccounts that work much like mutual funds (stocks, bonds, and so on). That market exposure is exactly what makes the contract variable. Hook: variable means a separate account whose value varies with the markets.
Question 6
An equity-indexed (fixed indexed) annuity credits interest based on what?
An indexed annuity ties its interest to a market index such as the S&P 500, so it can earn more than a plain fixed annuity in good years, while a guaranteed minimum (a floor) keeps a bad index year from crediting a negative return. Hook: indexed means index-linked upside with a guaranteed floor underneath.
Question 7
A life annuity with a refund feature (cash or installment refund) guarantees what at a minimum?
A refund annuity promises that if the annuitant dies before collecting at least what they paid in, the difference goes to a beneficiary, either as a lump sum (cash refund) or as continued payments (installment refund). It guarantees the premium isn't lost to an early death, in exchange for a somewhat smaller payment than life only. Hook: refund means you or your beneficiary are guaranteed to get back at least what you put in.
Question 8
Withdrawing taxable gain from an annuity before age 59 1/2 generally results in what?
Like other tax-favored retirement vehicles, annuities carry an early-withdrawal penalty: pull taxable gain before age 59 1/2 and the IRS adds a 10% penalty on top of the ordinary income tax you already owe. It's meant to discourage using a retirement tool as a piggy bank. Hook: 59 1/2 is the magic age; touch the gains early and there's a 10% penalty.
Question 9
In a qualified annuity funded with pre-tax dollars, how are distributions generally taxed?
A qualified annuity is funded with pre-tax money (think of one held inside a qualified retirement plan), so no tax has been paid on any of it yet. That means the whole distribution, contributions and earnings alike, is taxed as ordinary income. Contrast a nonqualified annuity, where only the earnings are taxable because the basis was after-tax. Hook: pre-tax in means fully taxable out.
Question 10
A Section 1035 exchange allows an owner to do what?
A 1035 exchange lets an owner swap one contract for a better-suited one, life-to-life, life-to-annuity, or annuity-to-annuity, and carry the cost basis over without triggering tax on the gain. Note it's a one-way street: you can roll a life policy into an annuity, but not an annuity back into life insurance. Hook: 1035 is a tax-free trade-in for a comparable contract.
Question 1
A life insurance death benefit may be included in the insured's taxable estate when which of the following is true?
Although the death benefit is income-tax-free, it can still be pulled into the insured's taxable estate if the insured kept incidents of ownership, such as the right to change the beneficiary, take a loan, or surrender the policy. Removing those controls (often through an irrevocable life insurance trust) is how planners keep proceeds out of the taxable estate. Hook: income-tax-free is not the same as estate-tax-free, and control is what drags it into the estate.
Question 2
How is the growth of cash value inside a permanent life insurance policy generally treated while the policy stays in force?
The cash value in a permanent policy grows tax-deferred, meaning there's no annual tax on the inside buildup as long as the policy stays in force. This is one of the quiet advantages of permanent insurance over a fully taxable account. Hook: nothing is taxed on the growth while the policy is alive and intact.
Question 3
An owner surrenders a permanent policy and receives cash value that exceeds the total premiums paid. How is the excess taxed?
When you surrender a policy, you get your cost basis (total premiums paid) back tax-free, but any gain above that basis is taxed as ordinary income, not as a capital gain. Hook: basis comes back tax-free, the gain on top is ordinary income.
Question 4
Under Section 79, how much employer-provided group term life insurance can an employee receive before the cost of the coverage becomes taxable income?
An employee can receive up to $50,000 of employer-paid group term life with no income tax on the cost of that coverage. Above $50,000, the IRS imputes income based on a standard cost table. Hook: $50,000 is the magic line for tax-free group term life, and the cost of anything above it becomes taxable to the employee.
Question 5
A buy-sell agreement funded with life insurance is designed primarily to do what?
A buy-sell agreement funded with life insurance guarantees that, when an owner dies, cash is available to buy out their share, so the surviving owners keep control and the deceased owner's family receives fair value in cash. Hook: it funds the buyout of a departed owner's interest so the business transitions cleanly.
Question 6
During the accumulation phase of a nonqualified annuity, the earnings are what?
Like the cash value in life insurance, annuity earnings grow tax-deferred during accumulation; you pay tax only when you take money out. Hook: no tax until you tap it, which is the core appeal of annuity accumulation.
Question 7
How is a distribution from a qualified annuity (funded entirely with pre-tax dollars) generally taxed?
Because a qualified annuity is funded with pre-tax dollars, none of it has been taxed yet, so the whole distribution, contributions and earnings alike, is taxed as ordinary income. There's no basis to exclude. Hook: pre-tax money in means 100% taxable out, with nothing to shield.
Question 8
A major tax advantage of a qualified retirement plan is that contributions are generally what?
Qualified plans get favorable tax treatment: contributions are typically pre-tax (deductible to the employer and not currently taxed to the employee), and the money grows tax-deferred until distribution. That's the carrot for meeting the IRS and ERISA rules. Hook: pre-tax in, tax-deferred growth, taxed later, the standard qualified-plan bargain.
Question 9
Compared with a nonqualified plan, a qualified retirement plan must do what?
A qualified plan must satisfy IRS and ERISA standards, including nondiscrimination rules that prevent it from favoring owners and highly paid employees, in exchange for its tax breaks. A nonqualified plan skips those rules but also skips the upfront tax advantages and can favor select employees. Hook: qualified plans earn tax breaks by following the rules; nonqualified plans trade the breaks for flexibility.
Question 10
A traditional 401(k) plan primarily lets an employee do what?
A traditional 401(k) is a defined contribution plan in which the employee defers part of their pay pre-tax into the account, often boosted by an employer match, and it grows tax-deferred until withdrawal. Hook: a 401(k) is salary you set aside pre-tax today to be taxed when you draw it out later.
Question 1
Disability income insurance is designed primarily to do what?
Disability income coverage doesn't pay medical bills; it replaces a paycheck. When illness or injury keeps you from working, it provides periodic income (usually a percentage of your earnings) so the bills at home still get paid. Hook: disability income protects the paycheck, not the medical bill.
Question 2
An accidental death and dismemberment (AD&D) policy pays benefits for which of the following?
AD&D pays only for losses caused by accidents: a death benefit if an accident is fatal, and a scheduled benefit for accidental dismemberment, such as losing a hand, foot, or eyesight. Death or loss from illness isn't covered. Hook: AD&D is strictly accident-driven; both the death and the dismemberment must come from an accident.
Question 3
In group health insurance, the master contract is issued to whom?
In group coverage the insurer issues one master contract to the group sponsor (typically the employer), and each covered member receives a certificate of coverage rather than an individual policy. Hook: the employer holds the master contract; employees hold certificates.
Question 4
Compared with individual health insurance, group health coverage generally does what regarding underwriting?
Group coverage is underwritten on the group as a whole, its size, industry, and demographics, rather than screening each person's health. That's why an employee can usually enroll without a medical exam during the eligibility window. Hook: group underwriting looks at the group, not each individual's medical history.
Question 5
A conditionally renewable health policy permits the insurer to decline renewal for which reason?
Conditionally renewable sits in the middle: the insurer may refuse renewal, but only for specific non-health conditions spelled out in the contract, like an age limit or ending employment. It can't decline simply because the insured got sick. Hook: renewal depends on stated conditions, none of which is the insured's health.
Question 6
Under an optionally renewable policy, the insurer may do what at each renewal date?
Optionally renewable hands the insurer discretion: at each anniversary or renewal date it can decide whether to renew at all and can raise the premium. It's much weaker protection for the insured than guaranteed renewable. Hook: the insurer holds the option, so renewal is its choice at each renewal date.
Question 7
Which renewability classification gives the insured the least security?
A cancelable policy lets the insurer terminate coverage at virtually any time with proper written notice (returning any unearned premium), making it the least secure arrangement for the insured. The other classifications all restrict when, or whether, the insurer can walk away. Hook: cancelable means the insurer can pull the plug almost anytime, so it's the weakest guarantee.
Question 8
Coinsurance in a health policy refers to what?
Coinsurance is the sharing percentage that applies once the deductible is met; an 80/20 plan means the insurer pays 80% and the insured pays 20% of covered charges. It keeps the insured with some skin in the game. Hook: coinsurance is the percentage you and the insurer split after the deductible.
Question 9
A covered medical bill is $5,000. The policy has a $500 deductible and 80/20 coinsurance, and the out-of-pocket maximum has not yet been reached. How much does the insured pay?
First the insured pays the $500 deductible. That leaves $4,500, which the 80/20 coinsurance splits, so the insured pays 20% of $4,500, or $900. Add the deductible and the coinsurance share: $500 + $900 = $1,400, while the insurer pays the remaining $3,600. Hook: deductible first, then your coinsurance percentage of what's left, so $500 plus $900 equals $1,400.
Question 10
An applicant classified as a substandard (rated) risk will typically experience what?
A substandard, or rated, risk represents a greater-than-average likelihood of claims, so the insurer charges a higher premium (or adjusts the coverage) to offset it, rather than simply declining. Hook: substandard risk means a higher price tag, not an automatic no.
Question 1
Under the entire contract; changes provision, who has the authority to change the terms of a health policy?
Changes to the contract are valid only when approved in writing by an executive officer of the insurer, and even then they must be noted on or attached to the policy. An agent has no power to waive or alter provisions. Hook: only a company officer can change the deal, never the agent at your kitchen table.
Question 2
The time limit on certain defenses (incontestability) provision generally prevents the insurer from voiding a health policy for misstatements after the policy has been in force for how long?
After the policy has been in force for a set period, commonly two years, the insurer can no longer void it or deny a claim because of misstatements in the application, with fraudulent misstatements being the usual exception. It mirrors the incontestable clause in life insurance. Hook: after about two years, honest application errors can no longer be used against the claim.
Question 3
Under the reinstatement provision, if a lapsed policy's reinstatement application is neither approved nor declined, the policy is automatically reinstated after how many days?
If the insurer requires an application for reinstatement and then neither approves it nor rejects it by sending written notice, the policy is automatically reinstated on the 45th day after the application date. Hook: insurer silence for 45 days equals automatic reinstatement.
Question 4
The purpose of the proof of loss provision is to do what?
Proof of loss is the supporting documentation, bills, statements, and records, that lets the insurer verify a claim and determine what it owes. Without it, the insurer can't properly evaluate the claim. Hook: proof of loss is the evidence file that backs up the claim.
Question 5
Under the physical examination and autopsy provision, the insurer has the right to do what?
While a claim is pending, the insurer may have the insured examined as often as reasonably necessary and, in the event of death, order an autopsy unless state law forbids it, with the insurer paying for these. Hook: during a claim the insurer can examine (or autopsy) at its own cost to verify the loss.
Question 6
Under the legal actions provision, what is the maximum time, generally, that an insured has to bring suit after proof of loss is required?
The insured generally has up to 3 years (5 in some states) from the time proof of loss is required to file a lawsuit, after which the right to sue expires. Hook: at least 60 days before you can sue, no more than 3 years after, that's the legal-action window.
Question 7
Under the optional change of occupation provision, if an insured changes to a more hazardous occupation, the insurer may do what at the time of a claim?
If the insured moves to riskier work and is later hurt, the insurer can pay reduced benefits, specifically the amount the premium already paid would have purchased at the rate for the more hazardous job. The policy isn't void; the benefit is simply scaled to the risk. Hook: a more hazardous job means benefits shrink to match what your premium buys at the higher-risk rate.
Question 8
Under the change of occupation provision, if an insured switches to a less hazardous occupation, the insurer will generally do what?
Move to safer work and the insurer reduces the premium to the lower-risk rate, refunding the excess premium already paid for the period. The change works in the insured's favor here. Hook: a safer job means a lower premium and money back.
Question 9
The optional relation of earnings to insurance (average earnings) provision applies to disability coverage and does what?
This provision prevents overinsurance on disability claims: if the benefits from all the insured's disability coverage would exceed their actual earnings, the insurer can proportionally reduce its benefit and refund the excess premium. The goal is to keep disability income from becoming more lucrative than working. Hook: it caps disability benefits at your earnings so you can't profit from being disabled.
Question 10
In an individual health policy, a pre-existing condition is generally defined as what?
A pre-existing condition is one that was diagnosed, treated, or for which advice was sought (or that a prudent person would have sought treatment for) before the coverage took effect. Policies may limit or exclude such conditions for a time. Hook: pre-existing means it was already on the radar, treated or advised, before coverage began.
Question 1
Under an "own occupation" (own occ) definition of total disability, the insured is considered totally disabled when they cannot do what?
The own-occupation definition pays benefits when the insured can't perform the main duties of their specific occupation, even if they could work in some other field. It's the more generous definition because it judges disability against your actual career. Hook: own occ asks only whether you can do your own job.
Question 2
A residual disability benefit pays an amount based on what?
Residual disability coverage pays a partial benefit scaled to your loss of income, so if a disability cuts your earnings by 40%, you collect roughly 40% of the total disability benefit. It bridges the gap when you can work but not at full capacity. Hook: residual benefits track your percentage of lost income.
Question 3
The benefit period in a disability income policy refers to what?
The benefit period is the longest span the policy will keep paying for a single disability, such as 2 years, 5 years, or to age 65. A longer benefit period raises the premium. Hook: the benefit period is how long the checks can keep coming.
Question 4
Why do disability income policies generally limit benefits to a percentage of the insured's income rather than 100%?
Insurers cap benefits below full income (and below what you'd net after taxes, since the benefits are often tax-free) so the insured always has a financial reason to recover and return to work. Paying 100% could encourage staying disabled, known as malingering. Hook: benefits stop short of full pay so working still beats collecting.
Question 5
A return of premium rider on a disability income policy provides what?
A return of premium rider refunds part of the premiums paid, less any claims, after a stated number of years, rewarding insureds who stay healthy. It raises the premium in exchange for that potential refund. Hook: stay claim-free and the insurer hands back a chunk of your premiums.
Question 6
A rehabilitation benefit in a disability income policy is generally designed to do what?
The rehabilitation benefit funds vocational training, education, or similar services that help a disabled insured re-enter the workforce, often while disability benefits continue during the program. It serves both the insured and the insurer, who would rather see a return to work. Hook: it pays to retrain you back into a job.
Question 7
Compared with group long-term disability (LTD), group short-term disability (STD) coverage generally does what?
Short-term disability typically replaces a larger share of income (sometimes 60% to 70%) but only for weeks or months, while long-term disability pays a somewhat lower percentage for years or to retirement age. STD covers the early gap; LTD takes over for prolonged disabilities. Hook: STD pays more for a short time, LTD pays steadily for the long haul.
Question 8
Key person disability insurance is designed to do what for a business?
Key person DI pays the business a benefit when an essential employee is disabled, helping cover lost productivity and the cost of recruiting or training a replacement. The business owns the policy and receives the benefit. Hook: it cushions the company when a key player can't work, much like key person life does at death.
Question 9
Workers' compensation disability benefits cover injuries and illnesses that are what?
Workers' compensation is an occupational-only program: it pays for work-related injuries and illnesses regardless of fault, but covers nothing that happens off the job. That's why private and group DI often coordinate around it. Hook: workers' comp covers on-the-job harm only.
Question 10
To qualify for Social Security disability benefits, a worker generally must be unable to do what?
Social Security uses a strict any-occupation standard: the worker must be unable to engage in any substantial gainful activity, and the condition must be expected to last at least 12 months or end in death. Many private claims would not meet this tough definition. Hook: Social Security disability is the strictest test, no substantial work of any kind, lasting a year or fatal.
Question 1
A comprehensive major medical plan is best described as what?
Comprehensive major medical merges basic and major medical into one policy, so a single deductible and coinsurance structure covers everything from routine care up through catastrophic claims. Hook: comprehensive equals basic plus major rolled into one plan with one deductible.
Question 2
A supplementary major medical plan is designed to do what?
Supplementary (or superimposed) major medical layers on top of a basic plan, picking up large or extended expenses once the basic plan's limited benefits run out. Hook: supplementary major medical is the backup layer that kicks in after basic runs dry.
Question 3
With a few exceptions such as emergencies, an HMO generally covers services only when they are provided by whom?
HMOs require members to use the plan's network of providers (outside of true emergencies), which is how they control cost and coordinate care. Go outside the network and the service generally isn't covered. Hook: HMO equals in-network only, except for emergencies.
Question 4
HMOs place strong emphasis on which of the following?
Because HMOs are paid a fixed amount per member, keeping members healthy directly benefits the plan, so they emphasize preventive care and wellness, like checkups and screenings, often at little or no cost. Hook: HMOs push prevention because healthy members cost them less.
Question 5
A high deductible health plan (HDHP) is characterized by what?
An HDHP trades a higher annual deductible for a lower premium, with the insured covering more upfront cost before coverage kicks in. HDHPs are the plans that can be paired with a health savings account. Hook: HDHP equals high deductible and low premium, and it's the partner for an HSA.
Question 6
Which of the following is true of a health savings account (HSA)?
An HSA belongs to the individual, so it follows them from job to job, the balance rolls over year to year, and it offers strong tax treatment: deductible (or pre-tax) contributions, tax-free growth, and tax-free withdrawals for qualified medical expenses. Hook: an HSA is yours to keep, rolls over, and is tax-favored coming and going.
Question 7
A traditional flexible spending account (FSA) is generally characterized by what?
An FSA lets an employee set aside pre-tax salary for medical costs, but it traditionally follows a use-it-or-lose-it rule: money not spent by the plan year's end (subject to limited grace or carryover options) is forfeited. Hook: an FSA is pre-tax but use-it-or-lose-it, so don't overfund it.
Question 8
Consumer-directed health plans (such as HDHPs paired with HSAs) are designed mainly to do what?
Consumer-directed plans put more decision-making, and more of the early cost, in the consumer's hands, pairing a high deductible with a tax-favored account so people shop more carefully for care. Hook: consumer-directed means you steer the spending, with skin in the game.
Question 9
When a person is covered by two group health plans, the coordination of benefits (COB) provision ensures what?
Coordination of benefits prevents duplicate payment when someone has two plans: one is designated primary and pays first, the other is secondary and may cover the remainder, but the total can't exceed the actual cost. It stops the insured from making money on a claim. Hook: COB keeps two plans from paying more than 100% combined, primary first, secondary second.
Question 10
Under federal health reform rules, group and individual plans that offer dependent coverage must generally allow adult children to remain on a parent's plan until what age?
Federal law generally lets young adults stay on a parent's health plan until they turn 26, regardless of student or marital status, when the plan offers dependent coverage. Hook: kids can ride a parent's plan to age 26.
Question 1
In a contributory group plan, where employees pay part of the premium, insurers typically require what minimum level of participation?
Because employees share the cost in a contributory plan, not everyone signs up, so insurers usually require around 75% participation to guard against adverse selection. Hook: contributory plans need roughly three-quarters in to keep the risk pool healthy.
Question 2
A group plan in which the employer pays the entire premium is called what?
A noncontributory plan is fully employer-paid; the employee contributes nothing toward the premium. A contributory plan, by contrast, has the employee pay a share. Hook: noncontributory means the employee does not contribute, so the employer foots the whole bill.
Question 3
Under COBRA, which qualifying event generally entitles a spouse or dependent to up to 36 months of continuation?
Events such as divorce or legal separation, the covered employee's death, the employee becoming entitled to Medicare, or a child losing dependent status give the spouse or dependents up to 36 months of COBRA continuation. Hook: family-status events like divorce and death stretch COBRA to 36 months for dependents.
Question 4
Under COBRA, if a qualified beneficiary is determined to be disabled, the standard 18-month continuation period may be extended to how long?
A disability determination (under Social Security rules) during the early part of COBRA can extend the 18-month period to 29 months, and the premium during the extension may rise to as much as 150% of the group rate. Hook: disability stretches COBRA from 18 to 29 months, at a higher premium.
Question 5
Under COBRA, an employee who is terminated for which reason is generally NOT entitled to continuation coverage?
Termination for gross misconduct is the key exception; it does not trigger COBRA rights. Ordinary terminations, layoffs, and resignations do qualify. Hook: gross misconduct is the one firing that forfeits COBRA.
Question 6
HIPAA's portability provisions were designed primarily to do what?
HIPAA aimed to make health coverage more portable, limiting how pre-existing condition exclusions could be applied when someone changed jobs and crediting prior coverage. It also barred group plans from discriminating based on health status. Hook: HIPAA is about portability, carrying coverage from one job to the next without being penalized for prior conditions.
Question 7
When an employee is covered as an employee under their own group plan and as a dependent under a spouse's plan, coordination of benefits determines what?
Coordination of benefits assigns one plan as primary (pays first) and the other as secondary (pays the balance up to allowable limits) so the total paid doesn't exceed the actual expense. Your own employer plan is usually primary for you. Hook: COB just sorts out who pays first and who pays the rest.
Question 8
When two group plans coordinate benefits on a $1,000 covered expense, what is the maximum the two plans together will pay?
Coordination of benefits caps the combined payment at 100% of the actual covered expense, here $1,000, no matter how generous each plan is on its own. The primary pays first and the secondary covers the remainder up to that ceiling. Hook: two plans still pay only the real cost, never more than 100%.
Question 9
The most common type of insurable group is which of the following?
The single-employer, employer-employee group is by far the most common form of group coverage, with the employer as sponsor and policyholder. Other valid groups include associations, unions, and multiple-employer arrangements. Hook: employer-employee is the everyday group plan most people picture.
Question 10
In a self-funded (self-insured) group health plan, who bears the financial risk of paying claims?
In a self-funded plan, the employer assumes the risk and pays claims directly out of its own assets, often using a third-party administrator to process them and stop-loss insurance to cap catastrophic exposure. Hook: self-funded means the employer is effectively the insurer, paying claims itself.
Question 1
A dental HMO (DHMO) generally pays participating dentists how?
Like a medical HMO, a DHMO pays network dentists a capitation fee, a set amount per member assigned to them regardless of services used, and members generally must use network dentists. It emphasizes prepaid, managed dental care. Hook: a DHMO pays dentists per member (capitation), not per procedure.
Question 2
A dental PPO is characterized by what?
A dental PPO contracts with a network of dentists who accept negotiated (discounted) fees, while still letting members see out-of-network dentists at a higher out-of-pocket cost. It mirrors the medical PPO model. Hook: a dental PPO is the discounted-network-with-an-exit-option model.
Question 3
The common 100/80/50 structure in a dental plan refers to the coinsurance for which categories, in order?
The 100/80/50 pattern maps to the three dental tiers: preventive/diagnostic at 100%, basic/restorative at 80%, and major at 50%. Knowing this ladder answers many dental questions at a glance. Hook: 100/80/50 equals preventive, basic, major, top to bottom.
Question 4
Orthodontia coverage in a dental plan is typically characterized by what?
Orthodontia is usually a distinct, optional benefit with its own lifetime maximum (not an annual one) and a lower coinsurance percentage, and it's frequently limited to dependent children. Hook: ortho stands apart, with its own lifetime cap, lower coverage, and often kids only.
Question 5
Which of the following would normally fall under the preventive/diagnostic category of a dental plan?
Preventive and diagnostic care covers the routine maintenance items, cleanings, exams, and x-rays, that keep small problems from becoming big ones. Crowns and bridges are major services, and braces are orthodontia. Hook: cleanings and x-rays are textbook preventive care.
Question 6
In a typical dental plan, the deductible most often applies to which services?
To encourage preventive care, plans commonly waive the deductible on cleanings and exams while applying it to basic and major services. That keeps the barrier off the care the plan most wants people to use. Hook: the deductible usually skips preventive care and lands on basic and major work.
Question 7
Predetermination of benefits (pretreatment review) in a dental plan lets the patient and dentist do what before major work begins?
With predetermination, the dentist submits the proposed treatment plan and the insurer estimates what it will cover before the work is done, so there are no payment surprises. It's recommended for expensive procedures. Hook: predetermination is a no-surprises preview of what the plan will pay.
Question 8
Which of the following is typically excluded from dental coverage?
Dental plans generally exclude purely cosmetic work, like whitening or veneers done solely for appearance, since it isn't medically necessary. Functional and preventive care is what's covered. Hook: cosmetic-only dental work is on you; the plan covers function, not vanity.
Question 9
When a person has dental coverage under two group plans, coordination of benefits ensures what?
Just as with medical coverage, dental coordination of benefits designates a primary and a secondary plan so that total payments don't exceed the actual cost of care. Hook: two dental plans still pay only the real cost, primary first, secondary second.
Question 10
Group dental coverage is most commonly offered how, relative to the medical plan?
Dental is usually written as its own standalone plan rather than folded into major medical, with its own premium, deductible, maximums, and benefit tiers. Employers often offer it as a separate elective benefit. Hook: dental typically stands on its own, separate from the medical plan.
Question 1
Besides reaching age 65, a person may qualify for Medicare in which situation?
People under 65 can get Medicare if they've received Social Security disability benefits for 24 months, and certain conditions (end-stage renal disease, ALS) qualify sooner. Hook: long-term disability, not just age 65, can open the Medicare door.
Question 2
The Initial Enrollment Period for Medicare is generally how long, centered on the person's 65th birthday month?
The Initial Enrollment Period spans 7 months: the 3 months before your 65th-birthday month, that month itself, and the 3 months after. Enrolling on time avoids late penalties. Hook: a 7-month window, three before, the month of, and three after your 65th.
Question 3
For most people already receiving Social Security, enrollment in Medicare Part A at age 65 is generally what?
People already drawing Social Security are usually enrolled in Part A automatically at 65, since Part A is premium-free for those with enough work credits. Part B enrollment may require action because it carries a premium. Hook: Part A usually arrives automatically when you're already on Social Security.
Question 4
Medicare Part B primarily covers which of the following?
Part B is medical insurance: it covers doctor visits, outpatient services, preventive care, lab tests, and durable medical equipment like wheelchairs. Inpatient hospital care is Part A. Hook: Part B is the doctor-and-outpatient side of Medicare.
Question 5
After the annual Part B deductible is met, Medicare Part B generally pays what share of the approved amount for covered services?
Once the yearly Part B deductible is satisfied, Medicare typically pays 80% of the approved amount and the beneficiary pays the remaining 20% coinsurance. That open-ended 20% is a common reason people add a Medicare Supplement. Hook: Part B pays 80, you pay 20, with no built-in cap on your share.
Question 6
Medicare Part B is best described as what?
Part B is optional; those who want it pay a monthly premium (often deducted from Social Security). Because it's voluntary and carries a premium, beneficiaries must usually take action to enroll, and late enrollment can bring a penalty. Hook: Part B is the part you choose and pay a monthly premium for.
Question 7
A person who delays enrolling in Medicare Part B without qualifying coverage may face what?
Skipping Part B when first eligible, without other qualifying coverage, can trigger a lifelong premium surcharge for late enrollment. It's designed to encourage timely sign-up. Hook: wait too long on Part B and you pay a permanent penalty.
Question 8
Medicare Part D prescription drug coverage is provided how?
Part D plans are offered by private insurers approved by Medicare, and enrollment is voluntary (with a possible late penalty for delaying). Beneficiaries choose a plan that fits their medications. Hook: Part D is private, optional drug coverage you sign up for.
Question 9
A Medicare Supplement policy generally must include a free look period of how long?
Medigap policies carry a 30-day free look, letting the buyer return the policy for a full refund if they change their mind. It's longer than the typical individual-policy free look. Hook: Medigap gives a generous 30-day free look.
Question 10
Which of the following is true of Medicaid's role in long-term care?
Because Medicare largely excludes long-term custodial care, Medicaid has become a major payer of nursing home and long-term care, but only after a person has spent down assets to qualify under its strict financial limits. Hook: Medicaid is the big long-term-care payer, once you've spent down to qualify.
Question 1
Premiums an individual pays for their own personal health insurance are generally treated how for federal income tax?
Personal health insurance premiums generally aren't deductible, though they may count toward the itemized medical expense deduction if total medical costs clear the AGI threshold. Hook: personal health premiums usually get no deduction, paid with after-tax dollars.
Question 2
When an employer pays the premiums for a group disability income plan and deducts them as a business expense, how are the benefits taxed to the employee?
If the employer paid (and deducted) the premiums and the employee was never taxed on them, the disability benefits are taxable to the employee when received; the tax simply shifts to the back end. Hook: employer-paid, employer-deducted DI premiums mean the employee is taxed on the benefits.
Question 3
Premiums an employer pays for a group health (medical expense) plan covering employees are generally treated how for the employer?
Employer-paid group health premiums are a deductible business expense, a major reason employers offer health benefits. Hook: the employer writes off group health premiums as a business cost.
Question 4
Employer-paid group health insurance premiums are generally treated how for the covered employee?
The value of employer-paid group health coverage is excluded from the employee's taxable income, so the employee gets the benefit tax-free. This is one of the most valuable tax breaks in the benefits world. Hook: employer-paid health coverage is tax-free to the employee, not counted as wages.
Question 5
Employer-provided group health coverage is considered tax-favored mainly because what?
The combination is what makes it powerful: the employer deducts the premium as a business expense, and the employee pays no tax on either the coverage or the benefits. Hook: deductible for the employer, tax-free for the employee, the best of both ends.
Question 6
An employee receives disability benefits from a plan whose premiums the employer paid entirely and deducted. How should the employee treat those benefits?
Since the employer funded and deducted all the premiums and the employee was never taxed on them, the full benefit is taxable income to the employee. Hook: fully employer-funded DI means a fully taxable benefit.
Question 7
Premiums for a disability buy-sell policy are generally treated how?
Disability buy-sell premiums are not deductible, much like a life insurance buy-sell, and the benefits used to fund the buyout are received income-tax-free. Hook: buy-sell premiums aren't deductible, but the buyout funds come tax-free.
Question 8
A non-qualified HSA withdrawal made before age 65 is generally treated how?
Pull HSA money out for non-medical reasons before age 65 and it's taxed as ordinary income plus a 20% penalty. After 65, non-qualified withdrawals are taxable but penalty-free (like an IRA). Hook: misuse the HSA early and it's income tax plus a steep 20% penalty.
Question 9
Contributions to a health flexible spending account (FSA) through salary reduction are generally treated how?
FSA contributions come out of salary on a pre-tax basis, lowering the employee's taxable income, in exchange for the use-it-or-lose-it restriction on unused funds. Hook: FSA money goes in pre-tax, shrinking your taxable pay.
Question 10
A self-employed person may generally deduct their health insurance premiums how?
The self-employed health insurance deduction lets self-employed individuals deduct premiums for medical, dental, and qualified LTC coverage above the line, without having to itemize, subject to certain limits. Hook: the self-employed get a special above-the-line write-off for their health premiums.
The rest of the North Dakota Life & Health system
Requirements, fees, and the exact path to the Life & Health license.
See how it works →A real chapter from the North Dakota manual, free.
See how it works →See how the tested concepts connect.
See how it works →The fastest way to make it stick.
See how it works →Turn your commute into study time.
See how it works →Sit in the front row of a 20-year classroom.
See how it works →Studying that doesn't feel like studying.
See how it works →Every tool, one system, one price.
See how it works →