Question 1
An Ohio resident life and health producer renews by completing:
Ohio's renewal CE is 24 hours every two years, including 3 ethics hours (note Ohio also requires 40 pre-licensing hours up front). Hook: 24 biennial, 3 ethics.
Free Practice
Real questions in the style of the Ohio Accident & Health licensing exam, pulled straight from the TESTivity course, each with a plain-English explanation. Start with the Ohio-specific rules below, then work the rest, and unlock the full simulator when you're ready to drill.
That's right — 26% of test-takers do not pass the Ohio Accident & Health exam on their first attempt. Make sure you're part of the 74% who do.
First-time pass rate: 74% · Source: NAIC, 2024 (most recent available statistics)
Question 1
An Ohio resident life and health producer renews by completing:
Ohio's renewal CE is 24 hours every two years, including 3 ethics hours (note Ohio also requires 40 pre-licensing hours up front). Hook: 24 biennial, 3 ethics.
Question 2
Ohio's guaranty association protects basic health insurance benefits up to:
Ohio applies the NAIC-model ladder - $300K life, $100K cash value, $250K annuity, $500K health - and bars using the fund as a sales tool. Hook: health sits at the top, $500K.
Question 3
An employee of an Ohio firm with 14 employees loses group coverage. Ohio's state continuation runs up to:
Ohio offers up to 12 months of state continuation for employees of small employers (2 to 19 employees), at up to 102% of the group rate with a 30-day election window. Hook: Ohio's mini-continuation stretches to a full 12 months.
Question 4
Against a violator, the Ohio Department of Insurance is authorized to:
The ODI oversees licensing, rates, and forms, runs market conduct exams, and enforces with fines, suspension, revocation, and cease-and-desist orders. Hook: examine, sanction, revoke.
Question 5
How does Ohio operate its ACA health insurance marketplace?
A FEDERALLY-FACILITATED marketplace (HealthCare.gov) — Ohio did not build a state exchange (Authority: CMS.)
Question 6
Ohio's children's health insurance (CHIP) coverage is known as:
Healthy Start (Ohio's CHIP, administered as part of Ohio Medicaid) (Authority: Title XXI CHIP.)
Question 7
What is the status of the ACA Medicaid expansion in Ohio?
YES — Ohio expanded Medicaid under the ACA (adults up to 138% of the federal poverty level), effective January 1, 2014 (Authority: ACA Medicaid expansion.)
Question 8
HIPAA generally requires that group health coverage be:
HIPAA requires guaranteed renewability of group health coverage, so a plan generally cannot be dropped simply because the group had claims, subject to limited exceptions like nonpayment or fraud. Hook: HIPAA makes group health guaranteed renewable.
Question 9
The Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA) primarily governs:
ERISA sets federal standards for private employer-sponsored benefit plans, covering many group health and retirement arrangements with rules on fiduciary conduct, reporting, and disclosure. Hook: ERISA is the federal rulebook for employer benefit plans.
Question 10
ERISA imposes standards on plan administrators such as:
ERISA holds plan fiduciaries to duties of prudence and loyalty and requires that participants receive reporting and disclosure about their benefits. Hook: ERISA means fiduciary duty plus telling participants what they have.
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Question 1
Cans of gasoline stored in a residential garage are an example of a:
A physical hazard is a tangible condition that increases the likelihood or severity of a loss: gasoline in the garage, a slippery floor, frayed wiring. You can see or touch it. If it's an attitude problem it's morale; if it's dishonesty it's moral; if it's a physical thing sitting there raising the odds, it's physical.
Question 2
Purchasing an insurance policy is an example of which risk management technique?
Buying insurance is the classic risk transfer: you hand the financial consequences of a loss to the insurer in exchange for a premium. Avoidance means not doing the risky thing at all, retention means keeping the risk yourself (like a deductible), and reduction means lowering the odds or severity (smoke detectors). Insurance equals transfer.
Question 3
The primary purpose of reinsurance is to:
Reinsurance is insurance for insurance companies. The original insurer (the ceding company) hands off part of its risk to a reinsurer so one giant loss doesn't sink it. Individuals never deal with reinsurers directly; it all happens behind the scenes between carriers.
Question 4
A reinsurance arrangement in which the reinsurer automatically accepts all risks of a certain type from the ceding insurer is called:
Treaty reinsurance is the automatic, blanket deal: the reinsurer agrees in advance to take a whole category of risks. Facultative is the opposite, case-by-case, where the reinsurer can accept or decline each risk individually. Treaty equals automatic and broad; facultative equals optional and specific.
Question 5
For the law of large numbers to work effectively, the exposures in a group should be:
The law of large numbers needs lots of similar exposures to make predictions reliable. A big pool of comparable homes lets the insurer forecast losses; a handful of wildly different ones doesn't. And concentrating them all in one spot is actually bad: one hurricane could wipe out the whole pool at once.
Question 6
A stock insurance company is owned by its:
A stock insurer is owned by its stockholders (shareholders), who receive taxable dividends when the company profits. Policyholders are just customers. Contrast that with a mutual insurer, which is owned by its policyholders. Stock equals stockholders; mutual equals members/policyholders.
Question 7
Under the law of agency, an insurance agent generally represents the:
An agent represents the insurer (the principal); that's the cornerstone of agency law. A broker, by contrast, represents the insured. So when an agent acts within their authority, the insurer is on the hook for what they do. Agent equals the insurer's rep.
Question 8
Because an insurance policy is drafted by the insurer and offered to the applicant on a 'take it or leave it' basis, it is classified as a contract of:
A contract of adhesion is written by one party (the insurer) and accepted as-is by the other, with no line-by-line negotiating. The practical kicker: because the insured didn't get to write it, any ambiguity is interpreted in the insured's favor. That's a courtroom rule worth knowing.
Question 9
Insurance contracts are considered 'unilateral' because:
Unilateral means only one side makes a legally enforceable promise, and it's the insurer, who promises to pay covered claims. The insured doesn't actually promise to keep paying premiums; they just won't get coverage if they stop. One enforceable promise equals unilateral.
Question 10
A statement made by an applicant on an insurance application that is believed to be true to the best of their knowledge is a:
Representations are statements the applicant believes are true, and they only need to be true to the best of the applicant's knowledge. A warranty is a stronger animal: it's guaranteed to be absolutely true. Concealment is hiding a material fact. For most applications, you're dealing with representations.
Question 1
Modern accident policies generally define a covered accident using which standard?
Older policies used the stricter accidental means test (the cause had to be unexpected), but the modern trend is the accidental results, or accidental bodily injury, standard, which only requires that the injury be unintended. It's a more generous, claimant-friendly definition. Hook: results, not means; the newer standard looks at the unexpected injury, not the cause.
Question 2
For coverage purposes, a sickness under a health policy is typically defined as an illness that does what?
Most health policies define a covered sickness as one that first appears (manifests) and is contracted while the coverage is in force. This wording is what lets insurers exclude pre-existing conditions that showed up before the policy started. Hook: a covered sickness has to show up on the policy's watch, not before it began.
Question 3
Medical expense insurance is designed to do what?
Medical expense insurance pays for the care itself, hospital stays, surgery, doctor visits, and related services, rather than replacing income. It's the bucket most people picture when they hear health insurance. Hook: medical expense pays the providers; disability income pays you.
Question 4
How are disability income benefits typically paid?
Disability income is paid as a stream of periodic payments (usually monthly) for as long as the qualifying disability lasts, up to the policy's benefit period. It functions like a substitute paycheck rather than a one-time payout. Hook: think of it as a replacement salary that keeps coming while you can't work.
Question 5
Under an AD&D policy, the capital sum refers to what?
The principal sum is the full benefit, paid for accidental death or for severe losses like both hands or both eyes. The capital sum is a percentage of that principal sum, paid for the loss of a single member or sight in one eye. Hook: principal sum is the whole pie (death or two losses); capital sum is a slice (one loss).
Question 6
Which type of coverage insures a group of people who are not individually named, such as passengers on an airline or students on a field trip?
Blanket coverage protects a constantly changing group whose members aren't named individually, like airline passengers, campers, or a sports team. You're covered simply because you belong to the defined group during the covered activity. Hook: a blanket covers whoever happens to be under it, no individual names required.
Question 7
A guaranteed renewable health policy allows the insurer to do what?
Guaranteed renewable means the insurer must renew the policy to the stated age, but it may raise premiums as long as the increase applies to a whole class of policyholders, never singling out one person. Hook: guaranteed renewal of the coverage, but the price can move for the whole class.
Question 8
Under an optionally renewable policy, the insurer may do what at each renewal date?
Optionally renewable hands the insurer discretion: at each anniversary or renewal date it can decide whether to renew at all and can raise the premium. It's much weaker protection for the insured than guaranteed renewable. Hook: the insurer holds the option, so renewal is its choice at each renewal date.
Question 9
A copayment under a health plan is best described as what?
A copayment is a set flat fee, say $25 for an office visit or $15 for a prescription, that the insured pays at the point of service. Unlike coinsurance, it doesn't change with the size of the bill. Hook: a copay is a fixed dollar ticket price per service, not a percentage.
Question 10
The Medical Information Bureau (MIB) primarily helps insurers do what?
The MIB is a nonprofit information exchange whose member insurers report coded medical and risk information. It flags inconsistencies, such as a condition disclosed on a prior application but omitted on a new one, but an insurer can't decline coverage based on MIB data alone. Hook: the MIB is a tip-off network for catching omissions, not a stand-alone reason to decline.
Question 1
Under the entire contract provision of an individual health policy, the contract consists of what?
The entire contract is just the policy plus the application attached to it. Nothing outside those documents, not the agent's promises and not the company's internal rules, can be made part of the agreement. Hook: if it isn't in the policy or the attached application, it isn't in the contract.
Question 2
When a lapsed health policy is reinstated, how are accident and sickness losses typically covered?
On reinstatement, accidental injury losses are covered immediately, but sickness is covered only if it begins more than 10 days after the reinstatement date. The 10-day gap on sickness exists to discourage someone from reinstating only because they've just become ill. Hook: accidents covered at once, sickness has to wait 10 days after reinstatement.
Question 3
After receiving notice of a claim, the insurer must furnish claim forms to the insured within how many days?
The insurer has 15 days after notice of claim to send the claimant the forms used to file proof of loss. Hook: notice of claim starts a 15-day clock for the insurer to provide claim forms.
Question 4
For a disability income claim, how often must benefits be paid under the time of payment of claims provision?
Benefits for a continuing loss like disability must be paid at regular intervals, at least monthly, while the disability lasts, rather than withheld until recovery. Other claims are paid promptly once proof of loss is received. Hook: ongoing disability benefits arrive at least monthly, not held to the end.
Question 5
Under the payment of claims provision, to whom are health insurance benefits generally paid?
Benefits are generally paid to the insured, while any death benefit (such as under AD&D) goes to the named beneficiary, or to the insured's estate if none is named. Hook: living benefits to the insured, death benefits to the beneficiary.
Question 6
Under the legal actions provision, how soon after submitting proof of loss may the insured bring a lawsuit against the insurer?
The insured must wait at least 60 days after giving proof of loss before suing, which gives the insurer time to review and pay the claim. Hook: 60 days is the cooling-off floor before any lawsuit can start.
Question 7
Under the change of beneficiary provision, the policyowner may change the beneficiary at any time unless what is true?
The owner keeps the right to change the beneficiary unless they've named an irrevocable beneficiary, in which case the beneficiary's written consent is required. Hook: revocable means change freely, irrevocable means you need the beneficiary's okay.
Question 8
The optional relation of earnings to insurance (average earnings) provision applies to disability coverage and does what?
This provision prevents overinsurance on disability claims: if the benefits from all the insured's disability coverage would exceed their actual earnings, the insurer can proportionally reduce its benefit and refund the excess premium. The goal is to keep disability income from becoming more lucrative than working. Hook: it caps disability benefits at your earnings so you can't profit from being disabled.
Question 9
The optional illegal occupation provision allows the insurer to deny liability for a loss arising from what?
This provision lets the insurer avoid paying for losses the insured suffers while committing or attempting a felony or from being engaged in an illegal occupation. Hook: get hurt while breaking the law in a serious way and the policy won't pay.
Question 10
The free look provision in an individual health policy typically gives the insured how long to return the policy for a full refund?
The free look period, commonly 10 days, lets a new policyowner examine the policy and return it for a full premium refund if they decide it isn't right. Hook: about 10 days to look it over and back out for a full refund.
Question 1
Under an "own occupation" (own occ) definition of total disability, the insured is considered totally disabled when they cannot do what?
The own-occupation definition pays benefits when the insured can't perform the main duties of their specific occupation, even if they could work in some other field. It's the more generous definition because it judges disability against your actual career. Hook: own occ asks only whether you can do your own job.
Question 2
An "any occupation" (any occ) definition of total disability is generally satisfied only when the insured cannot do what?
The any-occupation definition is stricter and more insurer-friendly: you're considered totally disabled only if you can't work in any job that fits your background. It's harder to qualify for benefits than under own occ. Hook: any occ asks whether you can do any suitable job, not just your old one.
Question 3
How does choosing a longer elimination period generally affect the premium of a disability income policy?
A longer elimination period means the insurer pays out less often and later, so it charges a lower premium. The insured accepts more of the short-term risk in exchange for a cheaper policy. Hook: wait longer to collect, pay less to own, so a longer elimination period means a lower premium.
Question 4
Why do disability income policies generally limit benefits to a percentage of the insured's income rather than 100%?
Insurers cap benefits below full income (and below what you'd net after taxes, since the benefits are often tax-free) so the insured always has a financial reason to recover and return to work. Paying 100% could encourage staying disabled, known as malingering. Hook: benefits stop short of full pay so working still beats collecting.
Question 5
A disability income policy with a Social Security offset (integration) provision does what?
An integrated, or offset, plan coordinates with Social Security disability so the combined payment doesn't exceed the target percentage of income; the policy reduces its benefit (dollar-for-dollar or partially) by what Social Security pays. It controls overinsurance and lowers the premium. Hook: the policy's benefit shrinks by whatever Social Security kicks in.
Question 6
A disability buy-sell policy provides funds for which purpose?
A disability buy-sell arrangement supplies the money for the remaining owners (or the business) to purchase the share of an owner who becomes permanently disabled, mirroring how a life-insurance buy-sell works at death. Hook: it funds the buyout of a disabled owner's stake in the business.
Question 7
Key person disability insurance is designed to do what for a business?
Key person DI pays the business a benefit when an essential employee is disabled, helping cover lost productivity and the cost of recruiting or training a replacement. The business owns the policy and receives the benefit. Hook: it cushions the company when a key player can't work, much like key person life does at death.
Question 8
Workers' compensation disability benefits cover injuries and illnesses that are what?
Workers' compensation is an occupational-only program: it pays for work-related injuries and illnesses regardless of fault, but covers nothing that happens off the job. That's why private and group DI often coordinate around it. Hook: workers' comp covers on-the-job harm only.
Question 9
To qualify for Social Security disability benefits, a worker generally must be unable to do what?
Social Security uses a strict any-occupation standard: the worker must be unable to engage in any substantial gainful activity, and the condition must be expected to last at least 12 months or end in death. Many private claims would not meet this tough definition. Hook: Social Security disability is the strictest test, no substantial work of any kind, lasting a year or fatal.
Question 10
Social Security disability benefits generally begin only after a waiting period of how long?
Social Security disability imposes a five-month waiting period, so benefits start in the sixth full month of disability. Combined with the strict definition, it makes private disability income coverage important for bridging that gap. Hook: Social Security disability makes you wait five months before the first payment.
Question 1
Basic medical expense (first-dollar) coverage is generally characterized by what?
Basic medical expense plans (hospital, surgical, and physician expense) typically pay from the first dollar with little or no deductible, but they cap benefits at modest limits. They cover routine costs well but can run out fast for a catastrophic claim. Hook: basic plans pay early but shallow, low deductible and low ceiling.
Question 2
Under a usual, customary, and reasonable (UCR) approach, a surgical claim is generally paid based on what?
UCR ties the allowable benefit to what providers in the same area normally charge for that procedure, rather than to a flat schedule. A charge far above the local norm may not be fully covered. Hook: UCR pays the going local rate, not just any billed amount.
Question 3
Basic hospital expense coverage typically provides benefits for what?
Basic hospital expense pays a daily room-and-board benefit (often up to a stated maximum per day and number of days) plus miscellaneous hospital charges like lab work and medications. It doesn't cover the surgeon, which is surgical expense. Hook: hospital expense pays for the bed and the hospital's charges, not the surgeon.
Question 4
Compared with basic medical expense coverage, major medical insurance is generally characterized by what?
Major medical is built for big claims: it features high (or no) maximum benefits, a deductible, and coinsurance, in exchange for covering a broad range of expenses. The cost sharing is the trade-off for that wide, deep protection. Hook: major medical goes big and broad, with a deductible and coinsurance along the way.
Question 5
A comprehensive major medical plan is best described as what?
Comprehensive major medical merges basic and major medical into one policy, so a single deductible and coinsurance structure covers everything from routine care up through catastrophic claims. Hook: comprehensive equals basic plus major rolled into one plan with one deductible.
Question 6
A major medical plan has an 80/20 coinsurance feature and a $2,000 out-of-pocket maximum (in addition to the deductible). Once the insured's coinsurance payments reach $2,000 for the year, what happens?
The out-of-pocket maximum (stop-loss) caps the insured's coinsurance share. Once the insured has paid $2,000 in coinsurance, the plan switches to paying 100% of additional covered charges for the rest of the year, protecting against a catastrophic bill. Hook: hit the out-of-pocket max and your 20% share drops to 0%.
Question 7
HMOs place strong emphasis on which of the following?
Because HMOs are paid a fixed amount per member, keeping members healthy directly benefits the plan, so they emphasize preventive care and wellness, like checkups and screenings, often at little or no cost. Hook: HMOs push prevention because healthy members cost them less.
Question 8
Managed care plans such as HMOs and PPOs primarily aim to do what?
The whole point of managed care is to rein in costs and coordinate care, using networks, gatekeepers, and utilization review, while still aiming to maintain quality. It's a deliberate contrast to open-ended fee-for-service. Hook: managed care manages both the dollars and the care.
Question 9
Consumer-directed health plans (such as HDHPs paired with HSAs) are designed mainly to do what?
Consumer-directed plans put more decision-making, and more of the early cost, in the consumer's hands, pairing a high deductible with a tax-favored account so people shop more carefully for care. Hook: consumer-directed means you steer the spending, with skin in the game.
Question 10
Under federal health reform rules, group and individual plans that offer dependent coverage must generally allow adult children to remain on a parent's plan until what age?
Federal law generally lets young adults stay on a parent's health plan until they turn 26, regardless of student or marital status, when the plan offers dependent coverage. Hook: kids can ride a parent's plan to age 26.
Question 1
To be eligible for group insurance, a group must generally have been formed for what reason?
A valid insurable group must exist for some primary reason other than getting insurance, such as an employer, a union, or a trade association, so the coverage is incidental and the group isn't just assembled to game the system. Hook: the group has to exist first for another reason, with insurance as a perk, not the point.
Question 2
Under experience rating, a large group's premium is based primarily on what?
Experience rating sets a group's premium according to its own claims history, so a group with low claims earns lower rates. It's common for larger groups, while smaller groups are often community rated using a broader pool. Hook: experience rating prices you on your own group's track record.
Question 3
In a noncontributory group plan, what level of eligible-employee participation is generally required, and why?
When the employer pays 100% of the premium (noncontributory), insurers require 100% of eligible employees to be covered. Since employees pay nothing and everyone is in, healthy and unhealthy alike, adverse selection nearly disappears. Hook: the employer pays all, so everyone's in, 100% participation.
Question 4
An employee who declines coverage during the initial enrollment period and later wants to join is generally treated as what?
Someone who passes up the on-time enrollment window becomes a late enrollee and may have to provide evidence of insurability or wait until an open enrollment period to join. The penalty discourages waiting until you're sick to sign up. Hook: enroll late and you may have to prove insurability or wait, the cost of not signing up on time.
Question 5
Federal COBRA continuation rights generally apply to employers with at least how many employees?
COBRA applies to group health plans of employers with 20 or more employees. Smaller employers may be subject to state mini-COBRA laws instead. Hook: 20 employees is the federal COBRA threshold.
Question 6
Under COBRA, which qualifying event generally entitles a spouse or dependent to up to 36 months of continuation?
Events such as divorce or legal separation, the covered employee's death, the employee becoming entitled to Medicare, or a child losing dependent status give the spouse or dependents up to 36 months of COBRA continuation. Hook: family-status events like divorce and death stretch COBRA to 36 months for dependents.
Question 7
When an employee is covered as an employee under their own group plan and as a dependent under a spouse's plan, coordination of benefits determines what?
Coordination of benefits assigns one plan as primary (pays first) and the other as secondary (pays the balance up to allowable limits) so the total paid doesn't exceed the actual expense. Your own employer plan is usually primary for you. Hook: COB just sorts out who pays first and who pays the rest.
Question 8
Under the common birthday rule for coordinating coverage on a dependent child, the primary plan is the one belonging to the parent whose birthday does what?
The birthday rule makes the plan of the parent whose birthday comes first in the calendar year (earliest month and day, not earliest birth year) the primary plan for a dependent child. It's a simple tiebreaker, not based on who is older. Hook: the earlier birthday in the year means the primary plan for the kids.
Question 9
The most common type of insurable group is which of the following?
The single-employer, employer-employee group is by far the most common form of group coverage, with the employer as sponsor and policyholder. Other valid groups include associations, unions, and multiple-employer arrangements. Hook: employer-employee is the everyday group plan most people picture.
Question 10
In a self-funded (self-insured) group health plan, who bears the financial risk of paying claims?
In a self-funded plan, the employer assumes the risk and pays claims directly out of its own assets, often using a third-party administrator to process them and stop-loss insurance to cap catastrophic exposure. Hook: self-funded means the employer is effectively the insurer, paying claims itself.
Question 1
A nonscheduled (comprehensive) dental plan typically pays benefits based on what?
A nonscheduled, or comprehensive, dental plan pays a percentage of the UCR charge for each service rather than a fixed dollar amount, so benefits track local prevailing fees. It's the dental version of UCR-based medical coverage. Hook: nonscheduled dental pays a percentage of the going UCR rate, not a fixed table.
Question 2
A dental HMO (DHMO) generally pays participating dentists how?
Like a medical HMO, a DHMO pays network dentists a capitation fee, a set amount per member assigned to them regardless of services used, and members generally must use network dentists. It emphasizes prepaid, managed dental care. Hook: a DHMO pays dentists per member (capitation), not per procedure.
Question 3
A dental PPO is characterized by what?
A dental PPO contracts with a network of dentists who accept negotiated (discounted) fees, while still letting members see out-of-network dentists at a higher out-of-pocket cost. It mirrors the medical PPO model. Hook: a dental PPO is the discounted-network-with-an-exit-option model.
Question 4
The common 100/80/50 structure in a dental plan refers to the coinsurance for which categories, in order?
The 100/80/50 pattern maps to the three dental tiers: preventive/diagnostic at 100%, basic/restorative at 80%, and major at 50%. Knowing this ladder answers many dental questions at a glance. Hook: 100/80/50 equals preventive, basic, major, top to bottom.
Question 5
The annual maximum benefit in a dental plan refers to what?
The annual (calendar-year) maximum is the ceiling on what the plan pays per covered person each year; once reached, the patient pays the rest until the maximum resets the following year. Dental annual maximums are often modest. Hook: the annual max is the plan's yearly payout ceiling per person.
Question 6
Orthodontia benefits are usually subject to what kind of limit?
Because orthodontic treatment is a one-time, multi-year course, plans cap it with a separate lifetime maximum rather than an annual one. Once that lifetime amount is used, ortho benefits end. Hook: ortho is capped for life, not per year.
Question 7
A dental plan has a $1,500 annual maximum. A patient has already received $1,300 in paid benefits this year and now needs a procedure for which the plan would otherwise pay $400. How much will the plan pay for this procedure?
Only $200 of the annual maximum remains ($1,500 minus the $1,300 already paid), so the plan pays $200 toward this procedure and the patient covers the rest. The annual maximum caps total payments regardless of the individual procedure's coinsurance. Hook: the plan pays only what's left under the annual max, here $200, and the patient absorbs the overage.
Question 8
Group dental coverage is most commonly offered how, relative to the medical plan?
Dental is usually written as its own standalone plan rather than folded into major medical, with its own premium, deductible, maximums, and benefit tiers. Employers often offer it as a separate elective benefit. Hook: dental typically stands on its own, separate from the medical plan.
Question 9
Vision plans most commonly pay for materials like frames using what mechanism?
Vision plans typically grant a fixed allowance toward frames or contacts (for example, an allowance applied at purchase), and the member pays anything above that allowance. Exams may carry a small copay. Hook: vision gives you an allowance to spend, and you cover the overage.
Question 10
A managed vision care plan that contracts with providers paid on a per-member basis and requires members to use those providers most resembles which model?
A managed vision plan that pays providers a fixed amount per member and limits members to its network mirrors the HMO/capitation model, trading provider choice for lower cost. Hook: capitation plus a required network equals the HMO model, applied to vision.
Question 1
Medicare eligibility is generally available to U.S. citizens and qualified residents beginning at what age?
Medicare's standard eligibility age is 65, the same age tied to its origins alongside Social Security. Certain younger people qualify too, such as those who have received Social Security disability for the required period. Hook: 65 is the magic Medicare age.
Question 2
For most beneficiaries, Medicare Part A is financed how?
Most people pay no premium for Part A because they (and their employers) already funded it through Medicare payroll taxes while working. Those without enough work credits can buy in by paying a premium. Hook: Part A is usually premium-free, paid for by a lifetime of FICA taxes.
Question 3
Medicare Part A measures hospital and skilled nursing benefits using what?
Part A uses benefit periods: one begins when you're admitted and ends after you've been out of a hospital or skilled nursing facility for 60 days in a row. A new stay after that starts a new benefit period (and a new deductible). Hook: a Part A benefit period resets only after 60 days fully out of care.
Question 4
Medicare Part B is best described as what?
Part B is optional; those who want it pay a monthly premium (often deducted from Social Security). Because it's voluntary and carries a premium, beneficiaries must usually take action to enroll, and late enrollment can bring a penalty. Hook: Part B is the part you choose and pay a monthly premium for.
Question 5
Medicare Part C (Medicare Advantage) is best described as what?
Medicare Advantage (Part C) lets beneficiaries get their Medicare benefits through a private plan, often an HMO or PPO, that combines Part A and Part B (and frequently Part D drug coverage and extras) in one package. It's an alternative to Original Medicare, not a supplement to it. Hook: Part C is Medicare delivered through a private all-in-one plan.
Question 6
A consumer enrolled in a Medicare Advantage (Part C) plan generally cannot also do what?
Medigap is designed to fill gaps in Original Medicare, so it doesn't work with, and shouldn't be sold to, someone on a Medicare Advantage plan. Selling Medigap to an Advantage enrollee is a prohibited practice. Hook: Medigap and Medicare Advantage don't mix, one supplements Original Medicare, the other replaces it.
Question 7
Medicare Part D prescription drug coverage is provided how?
Part D plans are offered by private insurers approved by Medicare, and enrollment is voluntary (with a possible late penalty for delaying). Beneficiaries choose a plan that fits their medications. Hook: Part D is private, optional drug coverage you sign up for.
Question 8
Medicaid differs from Medicare primarily in that Medicaid is what?
Medicaid is a joint federal-state program that provides coverage based on financial need, with income and asset limits, rather than on age or work history. Medicare, by contrast, is largely age- or disability-based and federally run. Hook: Medicaid is need-based coverage; Medicare is earned, age-based coverage.
Question 9
Long-term care (LTC) insurance is designed mainly to cover what?
LTC insurance fills the gap left by Medicare, which doesn't pay for ongoing custodial care, by covering help with daily living over an extended period, whether in a facility or at home. Hook: LTC covers the long-term custodial care Medicare leaves out.
Question 10
Besides being unable to perform ADLs, an LTC policy generally also pays benefits when the insured has what?
LTC benefits are also triggered by severe cognitive impairment, such as Alzheimer's or other dementia, even if the person can still physically perform ADLs, because they need supervision for safety. Hook: serious cognitive decline is its own LTC trigger, separate from the ADL test.
Question 1
Benefits received under a personal medical expense (health) policy that reimburse the insured for medical costs are generally treated how?
Medical expense benefits simply reimburse what you spent on care, so they aren't treated as income and are received tax-free. You can't deduct the same expense the insurer reimbursed, though. Hook: getting paid back for medical bills isn't income, so it's tax-free.
Question 2
When an employer pays the premiums for a group disability income plan and deducts them as a business expense, how are the benefits taxed to the employee?
If the employer paid (and deducted) the premiums and the employee was never taxed on them, the disability benefits are taxable to the employee when received; the tax simply shifts to the back end. Hook: employer-paid, employer-deducted DI premiums mean the employee is taxed on the benefits.
Question 3
Premiums an employer pays for a group health (medical expense) plan covering employees are generally treated how for the employer?
Employer-paid group health premiums are a deductible business expense, a major reason employers offer health benefits. Hook: the employer writes off group health premiums as a business cost.
Question 4
The key factor that determines whether group disability income benefits are taxable to the employee is what?
Taxability of disability benefits turns on how the premiums were funded: pre-tax employer dollars lead to taxable benefits, after-tax employee dollars lead to tax-free benefits. Hook: follow the premium dollars, pre-tax in equals taxable out.
Question 5
An employee receives disability benefits from a plan whose premiums the employer paid entirely and deducted. How should the employee treat those benefits?
Since the employer funded and deducted all the premiums and the employee was never taxed on them, the full benefit is taxable income to the employee. Hook: fully employer-funded DI means a fully taxable benefit.
Question 6
For a key person disability income policy owned by and payable to the business, how are the premiums and benefits generally treated?
Key person DI premiums are not deductible (the business is also the beneficiary), and the benefits the business receives are income-tax-free, the same nondeductible-in, tax-free-out pattern as key person life insurance. Hook: key person coverage, no deduction in, tax-free out.
Question 7
Premiums for a disability buy-sell policy are generally treated how?
Disability buy-sell premiums are not deductible, much like a life insurance buy-sell, and the benefits used to fund the buyout are received income-tax-free. Hook: buy-sell premiums aren't deductible, but the buyout funds come tax-free.
Question 8
A key difference in employee taxation between employer-paid group health benefits and employer-paid group disability benefits is that:
Employer-paid medical expense benefits reimburse care and stay tax-free, but employer-paid disability income benefits replace taxable wages, so they're taxable to the employee. The benefit type, not just the funding, matters here. Hook: employer health benefits stay tax-free, while employer-paid disability benefits are taxed because they replace a paycheck.
Question 9
A health savings account (HSA) is sometimes called triple tax-advantaged because of which combination?
The HSA's triple advantage is contributions that are deductible or pre-tax, earnings that grow tax-free, and withdrawals that are tax-free when used for qualified medical expenses. Few accounts offer all three. Hook: HSA equals a tax break going in, growing, and coming out, all three.
Question 10
Reimbursements an employee receives from an employer-funded health reimbursement arrangement (HRA) for qualified medical expenses are generally treated how?
HRA reimbursements for qualified medical expenses are tax-free to the employee, and the employer funds and deducts the arrangement, another tax-favored health benefit. Hook: employer-funded HRA reimbursements reach the employee tax-free.
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