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Free South Dakota Accident & Health Practice Questions

Real questions in the style of the South Dakota Accident & Health licensing exam, pulled straight from the TESTivity course, each with a plain-English explanation. Start with the South Dakota-specific rules below, then work the rest, and unlock the full simulator when you're ready to drill.

Questions on exam90
Passing score70 scaled
Test providerPearson VUE
Time limit2 hr
Pass rate51%

That's right — 49% of test-takers do not pass the South Dakota Accident & Health exam on their first attempt. Make sure you're part of the 51% who do.

First-time pass rate: 51% · Source: NAIC, 2024 (most recent available statistics)

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1 Insurance Basics & Foundational Concepts

Question 1

Which type of risk is the only kind that insurance is designed to cover?

Why

Insurance only deals with pure risk: situations where there's a chance of loss or no loss, but no chance of gain (like your house burning down). Speculative risk involves a chance of loss, no loss, OR gain. That's gambling and investing, and insurers won't touch it. If there's an upside, it's not insurable.

Question 2

A hazard is best defined as:

Why

A hazard doesn't cause the loss itself; it just makes a loss more likely or more severe. Icy steps, frayed wiring, a careless attitude: none of those start the fire or the fall, but they tip the odds. Causes of loss are perils; hazards just stack the deck.

Question 3

Which of the following is the best example of a moral hazard?

Why

Moral hazard equals dishonesty. It's the risk that someone deliberately causes or exaggerates a loss to profit, like torching a failing business for the payout. Don't mix it up with morale hazard (carelessness, choice B) or physical hazard (the actual physical conditions in A and D).

Question 4

Cans of gasoline stored in a residential garage are an example of a:

Why

A physical hazard is a tangible condition that increases the likelihood or severity of a loss: gasoline in the garage, a slippery floor, frayed wiring. You can see or touch it. If it's an attitude problem it's morale; if it's dishonesty it's moral; if it's a physical thing sitting there raising the odds, it's physical.

Question 5

The law of large numbers is important to insurers because it:

Why

An insurer can't predict whether your house specifically will burn down, but give them a big enough pool of similar homes and they can predict pretty accurately how many out of the whole group will. That's the law of large numbers: more similar exposures, more reliable predictions. It's the statistical engine that makes pricing coverage possible at all.

Question 6

The principle of indemnity is best described as:

Why

Indemnity is the whole heartbeat of insurance: you get made whole, not rich. The goal is to put you back where you were financially right before the loss, no better, no worse. That's why you can't insure a $20,000 car for $80,000 and cash in. Insurance reimburses a loss; it doesn't hand out winnings.

Question 7

The authority specifically granted to an agent in the agency contract is known as:

Why

Express authority is the authority written right into the agency agreement, the powers the insurer explicitly hands the agent. Implied authority fills in the gaps needed to use that express authority, and apparent authority is what the public reasonably assumes. Express equals expressly stated.

Question 8

An insurance contract is described as 'aleatory' because:

Why

Aleatory means the exchange of value can be lopsided and depends on chance. You might pay $600 in premium and collect $200,000 on a claim, or pay for years and never file one. That built-in inequality, hinging on whether a loss happens, is what makes the contract aleatory.

Question 9

The voluntary giving up of a known legal right is known as a:

Why

A waiver is voluntarily surrendering a known right, say, an insurer choosing not to enforce a policy condition. Estoppel is the follow-on: once you've waived something, you can be legally prevented (estopped) from later trying to enforce it. Waiver is the giving up; estoppel is being held to it.

Question 10

Which of the following is NOT one of the four essential elements of a valid contract?

Why

The four elements are agreement (offer and acceptance), consideration, competent parties, and legal purpose. A notarized signature isn't on the list, so it's the odd one out. Consideration, by the way, is what each side brings to the table: the insured's premium and the insurer's promise to pay.

2 Accident & Health Insurance Basics

Question 1

Disability income insurance is designed primarily to do what?

Why

Disability income coverage doesn't pay medical bills; it replaces a paycheck. When illness or injury keeps you from working, it provides periodic income (usually a percentage of your earnings) so the bills at home still get paid. Hook: disability income protects the paycheck, not the medical bill.

Question 2

An accidental death and dismemberment (AD&D) policy pays benefits for which of the following?

Why

AD&D pays only for losses caused by accidents: a death benefit if an accident is fatal, and a scheduled benefit for accidental dismemberment, such as losing a hand, foot, or eyesight. Death or loss from illness isn't covered. Hook: AD&D is strictly accident-driven; both the death and the dismemberment must come from an accident.

Question 3

Under an AD&D policy, the capital sum refers to what?

Why

The principal sum is the full benefit, paid for accidental death or for severe losses like both hands or both eyes. The capital sum is a percentage of that principal sum, paid for the loss of a single member or sight in one eye. Hook: principal sum is the whole pie (death or two losses); capital sum is a slice (one loss).

Question 4

In group health insurance, the master contract is issued to whom?

Why

In group coverage the insurer issues one master contract to the group sponsor (typically the employer), and each covered member receives a certificate of coverage rather than an individual policy. Hook: the employer holds the master contract; employees hold certificates.

Question 5

A guaranteed renewable health policy allows the insurer to do what?

Why

Guaranteed renewable means the insurer must renew the policy to the stated age, but it may raise premiums as long as the increase applies to a whole class of policyholders, never singling out one person. Hook: guaranteed renewal of the coverage, but the price can move for the whole class.

Question 6

Under an optionally renewable policy, the insurer may do what at each renewal date?

Why

Optionally renewable hands the insurer discretion: at each anniversary or renewal date it can decide whether to renew at all and can raise the premium. It's much weaker protection for the insured than guaranteed renewable. Hook: the insurer holds the option, so renewal is its choice at each renewal date.

Question 7

A stop-loss (out-of-pocket maximum) provision does what for the insured?

Why

The stop-loss, or out-of-pocket maximum, protects the insured from runaway costs: once their deductible and coinsurance add up to the cap, the insurer pays 100% of covered charges for the rest of the period. Hook: stop-loss stops the bleeding, since after the cap the insured's share drops to zero.

Question 8

Why do health insurers build deductibles and coinsurance into policies?

Why

Cost-sharing features like deductibles and coinsurance keep the insured financially involved, which both spreads the cost and discourages overusing services for minor issues. That helps hold premiums down for everyone. Hook: cost-sharing gives the insured skin in the game, curbing overuse and helping control premiums.

Question 9

What is the primary source of information an insurer uses to underwrite a health insurance applicant?

Why

The application is the foundation of underwriting; it's where the applicant discloses health history, lifestyle, and other risk details. Other tools (the MIB, physician statements, consumer reports) are used to confirm or supplement what the application reveals. Hook: underwriting starts with the application, and everything else verifies it.

Question 10

In underwriting, which set of terms describes how applicants are classified by risk?

Why

Underwriters sort applicants into risk classes, commonly preferred (better than average health, lowest rates), standard (average), and substandard or rated (higher risk and higher premium), with some applicants declined outright. Hook: preferred, standard, substandard, the ladder running from lowest risk and price to highest.

3 Individual A&H Policy Provisions

Question 1

The time limit on certain defenses (incontestability) provision generally prevents the insurer from voiding a health policy for misstatements after the policy has been in force for how long?

Why

After the policy has been in force for a set period, commonly two years, the insurer can no longer void it or deny a claim because of misstatements in the application, with fraudulent misstatements being the usual exception. It mirrors the incontestable clause in life insurance. Hook: after about two years, honest application errors can no longer be used against the claim.

Question 2

The grace period provision in a health policy does what?

Why

The grace period is a short window after a premium's due date during which the insured can still pay and keep the policy in force, so a late payment doesn't immediately cause a lapse. Hook: the grace period is breathing room to pay late without losing coverage.

Question 3

Under the model uniform provisions, the grace period for a health policy with monthly premiums is generally how long?

Why

The grace period varies with how often premiums are paid: 7 days for weekly premiums, 10 days for monthly premiums, and 31 days for any other mode. The less often you pay, the longer the grace period. Hook: weekly 7, monthly 10, everything else 31, so the rarer the payment, the longer the grace.

Question 4

Under the reinstatement provision, if a lapsed policy's reinstatement application is neither approved nor declined, the policy is automatically reinstated after how many days?

Why

If the insurer requires an application for reinstatement and then neither approves it nor rejects it by sending written notice, the policy is automatically reinstated on the 45th day after the application date. Hook: insurer silence for 45 days equals automatic reinstatement.

Question 5

When a lapsed health policy is reinstated, how are accident and sickness losses typically covered?

Why

On reinstatement, accidental injury losses are covered immediately, but sickness is covered only if it begins more than 10 days after the reinstatement date. The 10-day gap on sickness exists to discourage someone from reinstating only because they've just become ill. Hook: accidents covered at once, sickness has to wait 10 days after reinstatement.

Question 6

After receiving notice of a claim, the insurer must furnish claim forms to the insured within how many days?

Why

The insurer has 15 days after notice of claim to send the claimant the forms used to file proof of loss. Hook: notice of claim starts a 15-day clock for the insurer to provide claim forms.

Question 7

Under the proof of loss provision, the insured must generally submit proof of loss within how many days of a loss?

Why

Proof of loss, the documentation supporting the claim, must be furnished within 90 days after the loss, or as soon as reasonably possible. It's a longer window than the 20-day notice because it requires more detail. Hook: 20 days to notify, 90 days to prove.

Question 8

Under the optional change of occupation provision, if an insured changes to a more hazardous occupation, the insurer may do what at the time of a claim?

Why

If the insured moves to riskier work and is later hurt, the insurer can pay reduced benefits, specifically the amount the premium already paid would have purchased at the rate for the more hazardous job. The policy isn't void; the benefit is simply scaled to the risk. Hook: a more hazardous job means benefits shrink to match what your premium buys at the higher-risk rate.

Question 9

Under the optional misstatement of age provision, if an insured's age was stated incorrectly, the insurer will do what at claim time?

Why

Because age affects the premium, a misstatement is corrected by adjusting the benefit rather than canceling coverage: the insurer pays what the premium actually paid would have bought at the true age. Hook: a wrong age just resizes the benefit to match what you really paid for.

Question 10

Under the optional intoxicants and narcotics provision, the insurer is generally not liable for a loss that occurs while the insured is what?

Why

This optional provision excludes losses sustained while the insured is intoxicated or using narcotics not taken on a physician's advice. Prescribed and properly used medications don't trigger the exclusion. Hook: losses while drunk or on non-prescribed narcotics aren't covered.

4 Disability Income & Related Insurance

Question 1

An "any occupation" (any occ) definition of total disability is generally satisfied only when the insured cannot do what?

Why

The any-occupation definition is stricter and more insurer-friendly: you're considered totally disabled only if you can't work in any job that fits your background. It's harder to qualify for benefits than under own occ. Hook: any occ asks whether you can do any suitable job, not just your old one.

Question 2

Which definition of total disability is generally more favorable to the insured?

Why

Own occupation is the more favorable, and more expensive, definition, because it pays when you can't do your specific job regardless of whether you could earn a living elsewhere. Any occ, by contrast, sets a much higher bar to collect. Hook: own occ favors the insured, any occ favors the insurer.

Question 3

Under a recurrent disability provision, if an insured returns to work and then becomes disabled again from the same cause within the stated period, the second disability is treated how?

Why

The recurrent disability provision says that a relapse from the same cause within a set time (often six months) counts as a continuation of the prior claim, so the insured doesn't have to satisfy a brand-new elimination period. A later, unrelated disability would start fresh. Hook: same cause, soon after, means it picks up where it left off, no new waiting period.

Question 4

The elimination period in a disability income policy is best described as what?

Why

The elimination (or waiting) period is the time after a disability begins before benefits start to accrue, functioning like a time deductible. A 90-day elimination period means no benefits for the first 90 days. Hook: the elimination period is the unpaid waiting stretch before benefits begin.

Question 5

The benefit period in a disability income policy refers to what?

Why

The benefit period is the longest span the policy will keep paying for a single disability, such as 2 years, 5 years, or to age 65. A longer benefit period raises the premium. Hook: the benefit period is how long the checks can keep coming.

Question 6

A future increase option (or guaranteed insurability) rider on a disability income policy lets the insured do what?

Why

This rider lets the insured increase coverage at specified times or as income rises, without proving they're still insurable, which is valuable for someone whose health declines but whose earnings grow. Hook: it locks in the right to buy more coverage later, no new medical questions asked.

Question 7

Compared with group long-term disability (LTD), group short-term disability (STD) coverage generally does what?

Why

Short-term disability typically replaces a larger share of income (sometimes 60% to 70%) but only for weeks or months, while long-term disability pays a somewhat lower percentage for years or to retirement age. STD covers the early gap; LTD takes over for prolonged disabilities. Hook: STD pays more for a short time, LTD pays steadily for the long haul.

Question 8

A business overhead expense (BOE) disability policy is designed to do what?

Why

Business overhead expense coverage reimburses fixed business costs, rent, utilities, employee salaries, and the like, while the owner is disabled, so the business can keep its doors open. It pays actual covered expenses on a reimbursement basis over a relatively short benefit period and does not replace the owner's own income. Hook: BOE keeps the lights on at the business, not money in the owner's pocket.

Question 9

To qualify for Social Security disability benefits, a worker generally must be unable to do what?

Why

Social Security uses a strict any-occupation standard: the worker must be unable to engage in any substantial gainful activity, and the condition must be expected to last at least 12 months or end in death. Many private claims would not meet this tough definition. Hook: Social Security disability is the strictest test, no substantial work of any kind, lasting a year or fatal.

Question 10

Social Security disability benefits generally begin only after a waiting period of how long?

Why

Social Security disability imposes a five-month waiting period, so benefits start in the sixth full month of disability. Combined with the strict definition, it makes private disability income coverage important for bridging that gap. Hook: Social Security disability makes you wait five months before the first payment.

5 Medical Plans

Question 1

Compared with basic medical expense coverage, major medical insurance is generally characterized by what?

Why

Major medical is built for big claims: it features high (or no) maximum benefits, a deductible, and coinsurance, in exchange for covering a broad range of expenses. The cost sharing is the trade-off for that wide, deep protection. Hook: major medical goes big and broad, with a deductible and coinsurance along the way.

Question 2

A supplementary major medical plan is designed to do what?

Why

Supplementary (or superimposed) major medical layers on top of a basic plan, picking up large or extended expenses once the basic plan's limited benefits run out. Hook: supplementary major medical is the backup layer that kicks in after basic runs dry.

Question 3

HMOs place strong emphasis on which of the following?

Why

Because HMOs are paid a fixed amount per member, keeping members healthy directly benefits the plan, so they emphasize preventive care and wellness, like checkups and screenings, often at little or no cost. Hook: HMOs push prevention because healthy members cost them less.

Question 4

Capitation, as used by an HMO, refers to what?

Why

Under capitation, the HMO pays a provider a set amount for each member assigned to them per period, whether that member needs a lot of care or none. It gives providers an incentive to manage care efficiently. Hook: capitation pays per head, not per service.

Question 5

An independent practice association (IPA) model HMO contracts with whom to provide care?

Why

In the IPA model, the HMO contracts with independent doctors (or physician groups) who continue to run their own practices and see non-HMO patients too, rather than employing them directly as in a staff model. Hook: IPA doctors keep their own practices and just contract with the HMO.

Question 6

Managed care plans such as HMOs and PPOs primarily aim to do what?

Why

The whole point of managed care is to rein in costs and coordinate care, using networks, gatekeepers, and utilization review, while still aiming to maintain quality. It's a deliberate contrast to open-ended fee-for-service. Hook: managed care manages both the dollars and the care.

Question 7

A health savings account (HSA) may generally be established only by someone who is enrolled in what?

Why

HSAs are tied to HDHPs by law: you must be covered by a qualified high deductible health plan (and have no disqualifying coverage) to contribute. The high deductible is what the HSA is meant to help fund. Hook: no HDHP, no HSA, they're a required pair.

Question 8

Which of the following is true of a health savings account (HSA)?

Why

An HSA belongs to the individual, so it follows them from job to job, the balance rolls over year to year, and it offers strong tax treatment: deductible (or pre-tax) contributions, tax-free growth, and tax-free withdrawals for qualified medical expenses. Hook: an HSA is yours to keep, rolls over, and is tax-favored coming and going.

Question 9

Under federal health reform rules, group and individual plans that offer dependent coverage must generally allow adult children to remain on a parent's plan until what age?

Why

Federal law generally lets young adults stay on a parent's health plan until they turn 26, regardless of student or marital status, when the plan offers dependent coverage. Hook: kids can ride a parent's plan to age 26.

Question 10

Under current federal health reform requirements, individual and small-group plans generally must do which of the following?

Why

Federal reform requires these plans to cover a core set of essential health benefits (things like hospitalization, prescription drugs, maternity, and preventive care) and bars them from denying coverage or claims based on pre-existing conditions. Hook: a guaranteed benefit floor, and no more pre-existing-condition lockouts.

6 Group Health Insurance

Question 1

In a group health plan, the individual covered members receive what document evidencing their coverage?

Why

The insurer issues one master contract to the group sponsor, and each covered member gets a certificate of coverage summarizing their benefits and rights. The members don't hold individual policies. Hook: the sponsor gets the master contract, the members get certificates.

Question 2

Under experience rating, a large group's premium is based primarily on what?

Why

Experience rating sets a group's premium according to its own claims history, so a group with low claims earns lower rates. It's common for larger groups, while smaller groups are often community rated using a broader pool. Hook: experience rating prices you on your own group's track record.

Question 3

Community rating sets premiums based on what?

Why

Community rating spreads risk across a wide pool and charges similar rates regardless of any one group's experience, which protects small groups from volatile pricing. It's the counterpart to experience rating. Hook: community rating prices everyone off the shared community pool, not your group alone.

Question 4

An employee who declines coverage during the initial enrollment period and later wants to join is generally treated as what?

Why

Someone who passes up the on-time enrollment window becomes a late enrollee and may have to provide evidence of insurability or wait until an open enrollment period to join. The penalty discourages waiting until you're sick to sign up. Hook: enroll late and you may have to prove insurability or wait, the cost of not signing up on time.

Question 5

Federal COBRA continuation rights generally apply to employers with at least how many employees?

Why

COBRA applies to group health plans of employers with 20 or more employees. Smaller employers may be subject to state mini-COBRA laws instead. Hook: 20 employees is the federal COBRA threshold.

Question 6

Under COBRA, an employee who loses group coverage due to termination (other than for gross misconduct) or reduced hours may generally continue coverage for how long?

Why

Termination of employment (except for gross misconduct) or a reduction in hours is an 18-month qualifying event for the employee under COBRA. Hook: lose the job or the hours, get 18 months of COBRA.

Question 7

The conversion privilege in a group health plan generally allows a departing employee to do what?

Why

The conversion privilege lets an employee leaving the group switch to an individual policy without proving insurability, though usually at individual (higher) rates and within a limited application window. It protects coverage for someone who has become uninsurable. Hook: conversion turns group coverage into an individual policy with no health questions, but at individual prices.

Question 8

Under HIPAA, a group health plan generally may not do what?

Why

HIPAA's nondiscrimination rule prohibits a group plan from denying an eligible individual coverage, or charging them more, because of their health status or medical history. Everyone in the eligible group must be treated alike. Hook: HIPAA says a group plan can't single you out for being sick.

Question 9

Under HIPAA, prior health coverage that can reduce a new plan's pre-existing condition exclusion period is known as what?

Why

Creditable coverage is prior, generally continuous, health coverage that gets credited against any pre-existing condition waiting period a new plan might impose, shortening or eliminating it. Hook: creditable coverage is the prior coverage you get credit for when you switch plans.

Question 10

When an employee is covered as an employee under their own group plan and as a dependent under a spouse's plan, coordination of benefits determines what?

Why

Coordination of benefits assigns one plan as primary (pays first) and the other as secondary (pays the balance up to allowable limits) so the total paid doesn't exceed the actual expense. Your own employer plan is usually primary for you. Hook: COB just sorts out who pays first and who pays the rest.

7 Dental & Vision Insurance

Question 1

A dental HMO (DHMO) generally pays participating dentists how?

Why

Like a medical HMO, a DHMO pays network dentists a capitation fee, a set amount per member assigned to them regardless of services used, and members generally must use network dentists. It emphasizes prepaid, managed dental care. Hook: a DHMO pays dentists per member (capitation), not per procedure.

Question 2

A dental PPO is characterized by what?

Why

A dental PPO contracts with a network of dentists who accept negotiated (discounted) fees, while still letting members see out-of-network dentists at a higher out-of-pocket cost. It mirrors the medical PPO model. Hook: a dental PPO is the discounted-network-with-an-exit-option model.

Question 3

Basic restorative dental services such as fillings and simple extractions are commonly covered at roughly what coinsurance level?

Why

Basic restorative procedures typically sit in the middle tier, often paid at around 80%, with the patient covering the remaining 20% after any deductible. Hook: basic care lands in the middle, often about 80% covered.

Question 4

Under a least expensive alternative treatment (alternate benefit) provision, how does the plan pay when more than one acceptable treatment exists?

Why

The alternate benefit (LEAT) provision lets the plan calculate its payment based on the cheapest treatment that would adequately do the job. If the patient chooses a pricier option, they pay the difference. Hook: the plan pays for the cheapest adequate fix; upgrades are on the patient.

Question 5

Which of the following is typically excluded from dental coverage?

Why

Dental plans generally exclude purely cosmetic work, like whitening or veneers done solely for appearance, since it isn't medically necessary. Functional and preventive care is what's covered. Hook: cosmetic-only dental work is on you; the plan covers function, not vanity.

Question 6

A routine vision care plan typically provides benefits for which of the following?

Why

Routine vision coverage handles the everyday eye-care items, periodic exams plus eyewear like lenses, frames, and contacts, usually through allowances and frequency limits. Disease and surgery fall under medical coverage instead. Hook: routine vision means exams and eyewear, not eye disease or surgery.

Question 7

Vision plans most commonly pay for materials like frames using what mechanism?

Why

Vision plans typically grant a fixed allowance toward frames or contacts (for example, an allowance applied at purchase), and the member pays anything above that allowance. Exams may carry a small copay. Hook: vision gives you an allowance to spend, and you cover the overage.

Question 8

A vision plan that covers an eye exam once every 12 months and new frames once every 24 months is using what feature?

Why

Frequency limitations cap how often each benefit can be used, such as one exam per year and frames every other year, controlling cost while still meeting routine needs. Hook: frequency limits set how often you can use each vision benefit.

Question 9

A patient is treated for glaucoma, an eye disease. Under which coverage is this care most likely paid?

Why

Treatment of eye disease or injury, like glaucoma, cataracts, or an eye infection, is medical care and is covered under the health plan, not the routine vision plan, which handles only exams and eyewear. Hook: disease and injury to the eye go through medical coverage; routine vision handles glasses and checkups.

Question 10

A managed vision care plan that contracts with providers paid on a per-member basis and requires members to use those providers most resembles which model?

Why

A managed vision plan that pays providers a fixed amount per member and limits members to its network mirrors the HMO/capitation model, trading provider choice for lower cost. Hook: capitation plus a required network equals the HMO model, applied to vision.

8 Senior & Special Needs Health Insurance

Question 1

The Initial Enrollment Period for Medicare is generally how long, centered on the person's 65th birthday month?

Why

The Initial Enrollment Period spans 7 months: the 3 months before your 65th-birthday month, that month itself, and the 3 months after. Enrolling on time avoids late penalties. Hook: a 7-month window, three before, the month of, and three after your 65th.

Question 2

For most people already receiving Social Security, enrollment in Medicare Part A at age 65 is generally what?

Why

People already drawing Social Security are usually enrolled in Part A automatically at 65, since Part A is premium-free for those with enough work credits. Part B enrollment may require action because it carries a premium. Hook: Part A usually arrives automatically when you're already on Social Security.

Question 3

Medicare Part A primarily covers which of the following?

Why

Part A is hospital insurance: it covers inpatient hospital stays, limited skilled nursing facility care, home health care, and hospice. Everyday doctor visits fall under Part B. Hook: Part A is the hospital side, inpatient, skilled nursing, home health, hospice.

Question 4

For most beneficiaries, Medicare Part A is financed how?

Why

Most people pay no premium for Part A because they (and their employers) already funded it through Medicare payroll taxes while working. Those without enough work credits can buy in by paying a premium. Hook: Part A is usually premium-free, paid for by a lifetime of FICA taxes.

Question 5

Medicare Part A coverage of skilled nursing facility care is best described as what?

Why

Part A pays for limited, short-term skilled nursing care after a qualifying hospital stay, with full coverage for an initial period and coinsurance after that, but it does not pay for ongoing custodial (long-term) care. That gap is a key reason people buy LTC insurance. Hook: Part A skilled nursing is short and skilled, not long-term custodial.

Question 6

Medicare Part B primarily covers which of the following?

Why

Part B is medical insurance: it covers doctor visits, outpatient services, preventive care, lab tests, and durable medical equipment like wheelchairs. Inpatient hospital care is Part A. Hook: Part B is the doctor-and-outpatient side of Medicare.

Question 7

Medicare Part B is best described as what?

Why

Part B is optional; those who want it pay a monthly premium (often deducted from Social Security). Because it's voluntary and carries a premium, beneficiaries must usually take action to enroll, and late enrollment can bring a penalty. Hook: Part B is the part you choose and pay a monthly premium for.

Question 8

Medicare Part D prescription drug coverage is provided how?

Why

Part D plans are offered by private insurers approved by Medicare, and enrollment is voluntary (with a possible late penalty for delaying). Beneficiaries choose a plan that fits their medications. Hook: Part D is private, optional drug coverage you sign up for.

Question 9

Besides being unable to perform ADLs, an LTC policy generally also pays benefits when the insured has what?

Why

LTC benefits are also triggered by severe cognitive impairment, such as Alzheimer's or other dementia, even if the person can still physically perform ADLs, because they need supervision for safety. Hook: serious cognitive decline is its own LTC trigger, separate from the ADL test.

Question 10

The elimination period in a long-term care policy functions as what?

Why

Like the elimination period in disability income coverage, the LTC elimination period is the number of days at the start of care the insured pays out of pocket before policy benefits begin; a longer one lowers the premium. Hook: the elimination period is the upfront waiting stretch before LTC benefits start.

9 Federal Tax Considerations — Health Insurance

Question 1

Premiums an individual pays for their own personal health insurance are generally treated how for federal income tax?

Why

Personal health insurance premiums generally aren't deductible, though they may count toward the itemized medical expense deduction if total medical costs clear the AGI threshold. Hook: personal health premiums usually get no deduction, paid with after-tax dollars.

Question 2

Benefits received under a personal medical expense (health) policy that reimburse the insured for medical costs are generally treated how?

Why

Medical expense benefits simply reimburse what you spent on care, so they aren't treated as income and are received tax-free. You can't deduct the same expense the insurer reimbursed, though. Hook: getting paid back for medical bills isn't income, so it's tax-free.

Question 3

Employer-provided group health coverage is considered tax-favored mainly because what?

Why

The combination is what makes it powerful: the employer deducts the premium as a business expense, and the employee pays no tax on either the coverage or the benefits. Hook: deductible for the employer, tax-free for the employee, the best of both ends.

Question 4

In a group disability plan where the employer pays 60% of the premium and employees pay 40% with after-tax dollars, how are benefits generally taxed?

Why

When premiums are split, the benefits are taxed in proportion: the part attributable to the employer's deducted premium is taxable, and the part attributable to the employees' after-tax contributions is tax-free. Here that's about 60% taxable and 40% tax-free. Hook: split the premium, split the tax, in the same proportions.

Question 5

Premiums an employer pays for a group disability income plan are generally treated how for the employer?

Why

An employer can deduct group disability premiums as an ordinary business expense, just like other employee benefit costs. The trade-off is that the employee is then taxed on the benefits. Hook: the employer deducts the DI premiums, which is why the employee gets taxed later.

Question 6

When an employer pays group disability income premiums, those premiums are generally treated how for the employee at the time they are paid?

Why

The employer's premium payments aren't taxed to the employee when paid; the tax is deferred to the benefit stage if a claim arises. Hook: the premium isn't taxed now, the benefit is taxed later instead.

Question 7

The key factor that determines whether group disability income benefits are taxable to the employee is what?

Why

Taxability of disability benefits turns on how the premiums were funded: pre-tax employer dollars lead to taxable benefits, after-tax employee dollars lead to tax-free benefits. Hook: follow the premium dollars, pre-tax in equals taxable out.

Question 8

Premiums for a disability buy-sell policy are generally treated how?

Why

Disability buy-sell premiums are not deductible, much like a life insurance buy-sell, and the benefits used to fund the buyout are received income-tax-free. Hook: buy-sell premiums aren't deductible, but the buyout funds come tax-free.

Question 9

A health savings account (HSA) is sometimes called triple tax-advantaged because of which combination?

Why

The HSA's triple advantage is contributions that are deductible or pre-tax, earnings that grow tax-free, and withdrawals that are tax-free when used for qualified medical expenses. Few accounts offer all three. Hook: HSA equals a tax break going in, growing, and coming out, all three.

Question 10

Contributions to a health flexible spending account (FSA) through salary reduction are generally treated how?

Why

FSA contributions come out of salary on a pre-tax basis, lowering the employee's taxable income, in exchange for the use-it-or-lose-it restriction on unused funds. Hook: FSA money goes in pre-tax, shrinking your taxable pay.

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