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Free Wyoming Accident & Health Practice Questions

Real questions in the style of the Wyoming Accident & Health licensing exam, pulled straight from the TESTivity course, each with a plain-English explanation. Start with the Wyoming-specific rules below, then work the rest, and unlock the full simulator when you're ready to drill.

Questions on exam100
Passing score70%
Test providerPearson VUE
Time limit2 hr
Pass rate45%

That's right — 55% of test-takers do not pass the Wyoming Accident & Health exam on their first attempt. Make sure you're part of the 45% who do.

First-time pass rate: 45% · Source: NAIC, 2024 (most recent available statistics)

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1 Insurance Basics & Foundational Concepts

Question 1

Which of the following is the best example of a moral hazard?

Why

Moral hazard equals dishonesty. It's the risk that someone deliberately causes or exaggerates a loss to profit, like torching a failing business for the payout. Don't mix it up with morale hazard (carelessness, choice B) or physical hazard (the actual physical conditions in A and D).

Question 2

An insured who becomes careless about safety simply because they know they have insurance is displaying a:

Why

Morale hazard is the 'eh, I'm covered' attitude: indifference or carelessness that creeps in because insurance exists. It's not dishonesty (that's moral hazard) and it's not a physical condition (physical hazard). Trick to remember: moralE hazard is about a person's lazy attitudE.

Question 3

The principle of indemnity is best described as:

Why

Indemnity is the whole heartbeat of insurance: you get made whole, not rich. The goal is to put you back where you were financially right before the loss, no better, no worse. That's why you can't insure a $20,000 car for $80,000 and cash in. Insurance reimburses a loss; it doesn't hand out winnings.

Question 4

A stock insurance company is owned by its:

Why

A stock insurer is owned by its stockholders (shareholders), who receive taxable dividends when the company profits. Policyholders are just customers. Contrast that with a mutual insurer, which is owned by its policyholders. Stock equals stockholders; mutual equals members/policyholders.

Question 5

A policy that pays dividends to its policyholders is referred to as a:

Why

Participating policies 'participate' in the insurer's profits by paying policy dividends, and are typically issued by mutual companies. Nonparticipating policies don't pay dividends and are typically issued by stock companies. The word 'participate' is your tell.

Question 6

An insurer that has been granted a certificate of authority to do business in a state is known as a(n):

Why

An admitted (or authorized) insurer holds a certificate of authority from the state and plays by that state's rules. A non-admitted (unauthorized) insurer hasn't been granted one, which is where surplus lines come in for hard-to-place risks. Also worth knowing: domestic equals home state, foreign equals another state, alien equals another country.

Question 7

An agent who represents only one insurance company and does not own the policy expirations is typically called a:

Why

A captive (or exclusive) agent represents a single insurer, and that insurer owns the book of business. An independent agent represents multiple companies and owns their own expirations (the renewal rights). The ownership-of-expirations detail is the classic distinguisher.

Question 8

The authority that the public reasonably believes an agent has, based on the insurer's actions, is called:

Why

Apparent authority is about appearances: what a reasonable customer believes the agent can do based on how the insurer let the agent act (business cards, signage, company applications). Express authority is spelled out in the contract; implied is what's needed to carry out the express. Apparent is the 'looks legit' bucket.

Question 9

An agent who collects premiums on behalf of an insurer holds those funds in a:

Why

Premiums an agent collects belong to the insurer, not the agent, so the agent holds them in a fiduciary capacity, a position of financial trust. Mixing that money with personal funds (commingling) is a big no-no and a fast way to lose a license.

Question 10

The authority specifically granted to an agent in the agency contract is known as:

Why

Express authority is the authority written right into the agency agreement, the powers the insurer explicitly hands the agent. Implied authority fills in the gaps needed to use that express authority, and apparent authority is what the public reasonably assumes. Express equals expressly stated.

2 Accident & Health Insurance Basics

Question 1

Medical expense insurance is designed to do what?

Why

Medical expense insurance pays for the care itself, hospital stays, surgery, doctor visits, and related services, rather than replacing income. It's the bucket most people picture when they hear health insurance. Hook: medical expense pays the providers; disability income pays you.

Question 2

In group health insurance, the master contract is issued to whom?

Why

In group coverage the insurer issues one master contract to the group sponsor (typically the employer), and each covered member receives a certificate of coverage rather than an individual policy. Hook: the employer holds the master contract; employees hold certificates.

Question 3

A guaranteed renewable health policy allows the insurer to do what?

Why

Guaranteed renewable means the insurer must renew the policy to the stated age, but it may raise premiums as long as the increase applies to a whole class of policyholders, never singling out one person. Hook: guaranteed renewal of the coverage, but the price can move for the whole class.

Question 4

A conditionally renewable health policy permits the insurer to decline renewal for which reason?

Why

Conditionally renewable sits in the middle: the insurer may refuse renewal, but only for specific non-health conditions spelled out in the contract, like an age limit or ending employment. It can't decline simply because the insured got sick. Hook: renewal depends on stated conditions, none of which is the insured's health.

Question 5

Under an optionally renewable policy, the insurer may do what at each renewal date?

Why

Optionally renewable hands the insurer discretion: at each anniversary or renewal date it can decide whether to renew at all and can raise the premium. It's much weaker protection for the insured than guaranteed renewable. Hook: the insurer holds the option, so renewal is its choice at each renewal date.

Question 6

A deductible in a health insurance policy is best described as what?

Why

The deductible is the insured's upfront share, the amount you pay before the insurer's coverage kicks in for the year. A higher deductible usually means a lower premium, since you're absorbing more of the early cost. Hook: the deductible is what you pay first, before the insurer pays anything.

Question 7

Coinsurance in a health policy refers to what?

Why

Coinsurance is the sharing percentage that applies once the deductible is met; an 80/20 plan means the insurer pays 80% and the insured pays 20% of covered charges. It keeps the insured with some skin in the game. Hook: coinsurance is the percentage you and the insurer split after the deductible.

Question 8

A covered medical bill is $5,000. The policy has a $500 deductible and 80/20 coinsurance, and the out-of-pocket maximum has not yet been reached. How much does the insured pay?

Why

First the insured pays the $500 deductible. That leaves $4,500, which the 80/20 coinsurance splits, so the insured pays 20% of $4,500, or $900. Add the deductible and the coinsurance share: $500 + $900 = $1,400, while the insurer pays the remaining $3,600. Hook: deductible first, then your coinsurance percentage of what's left, so $500 plus $900 equals $1,400.

Question 9

In underwriting, which set of terms describes how applicants are classified by risk?

Why

Underwriters sort applicants into risk classes, commonly preferred (better than average health, lowest rates), standard (average), and substandard or rated (higher risk and higher premium), with some applicants declined outright. Hook: preferred, standard, substandard, the ladder running from lowest risk and price to highest.

Question 10

An applicant classified as a substandard (rated) risk will typically experience what?

Why

A substandard, or rated, risk represents a greater-than-average likelihood of claims, so the insurer charges a higher premium (or adjusts the coverage) to offset it, rather than simply declining. Hook: substandard risk means a higher price tag, not an automatic no.

3 Individual A&H Policy Provisions

Question 1

Under the entire contract provision of an individual health policy, the contract consists of what?

Why

The entire contract is just the policy plus the application attached to it. Nothing outside those documents, not the agent's promises and not the company's internal rules, can be made part of the agreement. Hook: if it isn't in the policy or the attached application, it isn't in the contract.

Question 2

Under the entire contract; changes provision, who has the authority to change the terms of a health policy?

Why

Changes to the contract are valid only when approved in writing by an executive officer of the insurer, and even then they must be noted on or attached to the policy. An agent has no power to waive or alter provisions. Hook: only a company officer can change the deal, never the agent at your kitchen table.

Question 3

When a lapsed health policy is reinstated, how are accident and sickness losses typically covered?

Why

On reinstatement, accidental injury losses are covered immediately, but sickness is covered only if it begins more than 10 days after the reinstatement date. The 10-day gap on sickness exists to discourage someone from reinstating only because they've just become ill. Hook: accidents covered at once, sickness has to wait 10 days after reinstatement.

Question 4

After receiving notice of a claim, the insurer must furnish claim forms to the insured within how many days?

Why

The insurer has 15 days after notice of claim to send the claimant the forms used to file proof of loss. Hook: notice of claim starts a 15-day clock for the insurer to provide claim forms.

Question 5

Under the payment of claims provision, to whom are health insurance benefits generally paid?

Why

Benefits are generally paid to the insured, while any death benefit (such as under AD&D) goes to the named beneficiary, or to the insured's estate if none is named. Hook: living benefits to the insured, death benefits to the beneficiary.

Question 6

The facility of payment clause within the payment of claims provision allows the insurer to do what?

Why

The facility of payment clause lets the insurer pay up to a stated amount to a relative or whoever appears equitably entitled, which is useful when there's no living beneficiary or the insured is deceased or incapacitated. It gives the insurer a practical way to settle small amounts without a court. Hook: facility of payment is the insurer's shortcut to pay someone fairly entitled when no beneficiary fits.

Question 7

Under the physical examination and autopsy provision, the insurer has the right to do what?

Why

While a claim is pending, the insurer may have the insured examined as often as reasonably necessary and, in the event of death, order an autopsy unless state law forbids it, with the insurer paying for these. Hook: during a claim the insurer can examine (or autopsy) at its own cost to verify the loss.

Question 8

Under the change of occupation provision, if an insured switches to a less hazardous occupation, the insurer will generally do what?

Why

Move to safer work and the insurer reduces the premium to the lower-risk rate, refunding the excess premium already paid for the period. The change works in the insured's favor here. Hook: a safer job means a lower premium and money back.

Question 9

The optional relation of earnings to insurance (average earnings) provision applies to disability coverage and does what?

Why

This provision prevents overinsurance on disability claims: if the benefits from all the insured's disability coverage would exceed their actual earnings, the insurer can proportionally reduce its benefit and refund the excess premium. The goal is to keep disability income from becoming more lucrative than working. Hook: it caps disability benefits at your earnings so you can't profit from being disabled.

Question 10

The free look provision in an individual health policy typically gives the insured how long to return the policy for a full refund?

Why

The free look period, commonly 10 days, lets a new policyowner examine the policy and return it for a full premium refund if they decide it isn't right. Hook: about 10 days to look it over and back out for a full refund.

4 Disability Income & Related Insurance

Question 1

Under an "own occupation" (own occ) definition of total disability, the insured is considered totally disabled when they cannot do what?

Why

The own-occupation definition pays benefits when the insured can't perform the main duties of their specific occupation, even if they could work in some other field. It's the more generous definition because it judges disability against your actual career. Hook: own occ asks only whether you can do your own job.

Question 2

The elimination period in a disability income policy is best described as what?

Why

The elimination (or waiting) period is the time after a disability begins before benefits start to accrue, functioning like a time deductible. A 90-day elimination period means no benefits for the first 90 days. Hook: the elimination period is the unpaid waiting stretch before benefits begin.

Question 3

How does choosing a longer elimination period generally affect the premium of a disability income policy?

Why

A longer elimination period means the insurer pays out less often and later, so it charges a lower premium. The insured accepts more of the short-term risk in exchange for a cheaper policy. Hook: wait longer to collect, pay less to own, so a longer elimination period means a lower premium.

Question 4

An insured with a 60-day elimination period becomes disabled. When do benefits begin to accrue?

Why

No benefits are paid during the elimination period, so with a 60-day elimination period, benefits start accruing only after those 60 days of continuous disability have passed. The insured covers that initial gap themselves. Hook: nothing is paid until the elimination period clock runs out.

Question 5

A social insurance supplement (SIS) rider pays a benefit under which circumstance?

Why

A social insurance supplement rider is designed to fill the gap if Social Security disability benefits are denied, delayed, or paid at a reduced amount, paying the supplement in their place and stepping down as Social Security pays. Hook: the SIS rider covers the shortfall when Social Security disability falls through or comes up short.

Question 6

A rehabilitation benefit in a disability income policy is generally designed to do what?

Why

The rehabilitation benefit funds vocational training, education, or similar services that help a disabled insured re-enter the workforce, often while disability benefits continue during the program. It serves both the insured and the insurer, who would rather see a return to work. Hook: it pays to retrain you back into a job.

Question 7

Compared with group long-term disability (LTD), group short-term disability (STD) coverage generally does what?

Why

Short-term disability typically replaces a larger share of income (sometimes 60% to 70%) but only for weeks or months, while long-term disability pays a somewhat lower percentage for years or to retirement age. STD covers the early gap; LTD takes over for prolonged disabilities. Hook: STD pays more for a short time, LTD pays steadily for the long haul.

Question 8

A disability buy-sell policy provides funds for which purpose?

Why

A disability buy-sell arrangement supplies the money for the remaining owners (or the business) to purchase the share of an owner who becomes permanently disabled, mirroring how a life-insurance buy-sell works at death. Hook: it funds the buyout of a disabled owner's stake in the business.

Question 9

To qualify for Social Security disability benefits, a worker generally must be unable to do what?

Why

Social Security uses a strict any-occupation standard: the worker must be unable to engage in any substantial gainful activity, and the condition must be expected to last at least 12 months or end in death. Many private claims would not meet this tough definition. Hook: Social Security disability is the strictest test, no substantial work of any kind, lasting a year or fatal.

Question 10

A disability income policy written on an occupational (24-hour) basis covers disabilities that occur where?

Why

Occupational coverage, sometimes called 24-hour coverage, pays for disabilities arising both on and off the job, around the clock. It's broader, and costs more, than nonoccupational coverage. Hook: occupational/24-hour means covered anytime, anywhere, on or off the clock.

5 Medical Plans

Question 1

Under a usual, customary, and reasonable (UCR) approach, a surgical claim is generally paid based on what?

Why

UCR ties the allowable benefit to what providers in the same area normally charge for that procedure, rather than to a flat schedule. A charge far above the local norm may not be fully covered. Hook: UCR pays the going local rate, not just any billed amount.

Question 2

Compared with basic medical expense coverage, major medical insurance is generally characterized by what?

Why

Major medical is built for big claims: it features high (or no) maximum benefits, a deductible, and coinsurance, in exchange for covering a broad range of expenses. The cost sharing is the trade-off for that wide, deep protection. Hook: major medical goes big and broad, with a deductible and coinsurance along the way.

Question 3

A comprehensive major medical plan is best described as what?

Why

Comprehensive major medical merges basic and major medical into one policy, so a single deductible and coinsurance structure covers everything from routine care up through catastrophic claims. Hook: comprehensive equals basic plus major rolled into one plan with one deductible.

Question 4

A major medical plan has an 80/20 coinsurance feature and a $2,000 out-of-pocket maximum (in addition to the deductible). Once the insured's coinsurance payments reach $2,000 for the year, what happens?

Why

The out-of-pocket maximum (stop-loss) caps the insured's coinsurance share. Once the insured has paid $2,000 in coinsurance, the plan switches to paying 100% of additional covered charges for the rest of the year, protecting against a catastrophic bill. Hook: hit the out-of-pocket max and your 20% share drops to 0%.

Question 5

A health maintenance organization (HMO) is generally financed through what?

Why

An HMO operates on a prepaid basis: members pay a fixed periodic amount and receive comprehensive services from the HMO's providers, who are often paid by capitation (a set fee per member). It shifts the focus from billing per service to managing care within a fixed budget. Hook: an HMO is prepaid care, a flat fee buys a defined set of services.

Question 6

A key feature of a preferred provider organization (PPO) is that members may do what?

Why

A PPO offers a network of providers at discounted rates but still lets members go out of network; they just pay more (higher deductible or coinsurance) when they do. That flexibility is the PPO's main selling point over an HMO. Hook: a PPO lets you leave the network, for a price.

Question 7

A traditional flexible spending account (FSA) is generally characterized by what?

Why

An FSA lets an employee set aside pre-tax salary for medical costs, but it traditionally follows a use-it-or-lose-it rule: money not spent by the plan year's end (subject to limited grace or carryover options) is forfeited. Hook: an FSA is pre-tax but use-it-or-lose-it, so don't overfund it.

Question 8

A health reimbursement arrangement (HRA) is funded by whom?

Why

An HRA is funded solely by the employer, which sets aside money to reimburse employees for qualified medical expenses. Because the employer owns it, the rules on carryover and portability are set by the employer. Hook: the employer funds and owns the HRA.

Question 9

When a person is covered by two group health plans, the coordination of benefits (COB) provision ensures what?

Why

Coordination of benefits prevents duplicate payment when someone has two plans: one is designated primary and pays first, the other is secondary and may cover the remainder, but the total can't exceed the actual cost. It stops the insured from making money on a claim. Hook: COB keeps two plans from paying more than 100% combined, primary first, secondary second.

Question 10

Under current federal health reform requirements, individual and small-group plans generally must do which of the following?

Why

Federal reform requires these plans to cover a core set of essential health benefits (things like hospitalization, prescription drugs, maternity, and preventive care) and bars them from denying coverage or claims based on pre-existing conditions. Hook: a guaranteed benefit floor, and no more pre-existing-condition lockouts.

6 Group Health Insurance

Question 1

Under experience rating, a large group's premium is based primarily on what?

Why

Experience rating sets a group's premium according to its own claims history, so a group with low claims earns lower rates. It's common for larger groups, while smaller groups are often community rated using a broader pool. Hook: experience rating prices you on your own group's track record.

Question 2

The enrollment (eligibility) period in a group plan is the window during which an eligible employee may do what?

Why

Once eligible, an employee gets an enrollment period, a limited window often around 31 days, to elect coverage. Enroll on time and no evidence of insurability is required; miss it and they may become a late enrollee. Hook: the enrollment period is your on-time window to sign up without health questions.

Question 3

In a noncontributory group plan, what level of eligible-employee participation is generally required, and why?

Why

When the employer pays 100% of the premium (noncontributory), insurers require 100% of eligible employees to be covered. Since employees pay nothing and everyone is in, healthy and unhealthy alike, adverse selection nearly disappears. Hook: the employer pays all, so everyone's in, 100% participation.

Question 4

Under COBRA, an employee who loses group coverage due to termination (other than for gross misconduct) or reduced hours may generally continue coverage for how long?

Why

Termination of employment (except for gross misconduct) or a reduction in hours is an 18-month qualifying event for the employee under COBRA. Hook: lose the job or the hours, get 18 months of COBRA.

Question 5

Under COBRA, which qualifying event generally entitles a spouse or dependent to up to 36 months of continuation?

Why

Events such as divorce or legal separation, the covered employee's death, the employee becoming entitled to Medicare, or a child losing dependent status give the spouse or dependents up to 36 months of COBRA continuation. Hook: family-status events like divorce and death stretch COBRA to 36 months for dependents.

Question 6

Under COBRA, if a qualified beneficiary is determined to be disabled, the standard 18-month continuation period may be extended to how long?

Why

A disability determination (under Social Security rules) during the early part of COBRA can extend the 18-month period to 29 months, and the premium during the extension may rise to as much as 150% of the group rate. Hook: disability stretches COBRA from 18 to 29 months, at a higher premium.

Question 7

The conversion privilege in a group health plan generally allows a departing employee to do what?

Why

The conversion privilege lets an employee leaving the group switch to an individual policy without proving insurability, though usually at individual (higher) rates and within a limited application window. It protects coverage for someone who has become uninsurable. Hook: conversion turns group coverage into an individual policy with no health questions, but at individual prices.

Question 8

Under HIPAA, prior health coverage that can reduce a new plan's pre-existing condition exclusion period is known as what?

Why

Creditable coverage is prior, generally continuous, health coverage that gets credited against any pre-existing condition waiting period a new plan might impose, shortening or eliminating it. Hook: creditable coverage is the prior coverage you get credit for when you switch plans.

Question 9

Under the common birthday rule for coordinating coverage on a dependent child, the primary plan is the one belonging to the parent whose birthday does what?

Why

The birthday rule makes the plan of the parent whose birthday comes first in the calendar year (earliest month and day, not earliest birth year) the primary plan for a dependent child. It's a simple tiebreaker, not based on who is older. Hook: the earlier birthday in the year means the primary plan for the kids.

Question 10

The most common type of insurable group is which of the following?

Why

The single-employer, employer-employee group is by far the most common form of group coverage, with the employer as sponsor and policyholder. Other valid groups include associations, unions, and multiple-employer arrangements. Hook: employer-employee is the everyday group plan most people picture.

7 Dental & Vision Insurance

Question 1

A scheduled (table of allowances) dental plan pays benefits how?

Why

A scheduled dental plan lists a set dollar benefit for each covered procedure, regardless of what the dentist actually charges. If the bill exceeds the schedule amount, the patient pays the difference. Hook: scheduled dental is a fixed price list, one dollar figure per procedure.

Question 2

A dental PPO is characterized by what?

Why

A dental PPO contracts with a network of dentists who accept negotiated (discounted) fees, while still letting members see out-of-network dentists at a higher out-of-pocket cost. It mirrors the medical PPO model. Hook: a dental PPO is the discounted-network-with-an-exit-option model.

Question 3

Which of the following would normally fall under the preventive/diagnostic category of a dental plan?

Why

Preventive and diagnostic care covers the routine maintenance items, cleanings, exams, and x-rays, that keep small problems from becoming big ones. Crowns and bridges are major services, and braces are orthodontia. Hook: cleanings and x-rays are textbook preventive care.

Question 4

The annual maximum benefit in a dental plan refers to what?

Why

The annual (calendar-year) maximum is the ceiling on what the plan pays per covered person each year; once reached, the patient pays the rest until the maximum resets the following year. Dental annual maximums are often modest. Hook: the annual max is the plan's yearly payout ceiling per person.

Question 5

Orthodontia benefits are usually subject to what kind of limit?

Why

Because orthodontic treatment is a one-time, multi-year course, plans cap it with a separate lifetime maximum rather than an annual one. Once that lifetime amount is used, ortho benefits end. Hook: ortho is capped for life, not per year.

Question 6

Many dental plans impose a waiting period before covering which services?

Why

Plans often require a waiting period (such as 6 to 12 months) before paying for expensive major services, which discourages someone from enrolling, getting costly work, and then dropping the plan. Preventive care is usually available immediately. Hook: big-ticket dental work often comes with a waiting period; cleanings do not.

Question 7

When a person has dental coverage under two group plans, coordination of benefits ensures what?

Why

Just as with medical coverage, dental coordination of benefits designates a primary and a secondary plan so that total payments don't exceed the actual cost of care. Hook: two dental plans still pay only the real cost, primary first, secondary second.

Question 8

Group dental coverage is most commonly offered how, relative to the medical plan?

Why

Dental is usually written as its own standalone plan rather than folded into major medical, with its own premium, deductible, maximums, and benefit tiers. Employers often offer it as a separate elective benefit. Hook: dental typically stands on its own, separate from the medical plan.

Question 9

A routine vision care plan typically provides benefits for which of the following?

Why

Routine vision coverage handles the everyday eye-care items, periodic exams plus eyewear like lenses, frames, and contacts, usually through allowances and frequency limits. Disease and surgery fall under medical coverage instead. Hook: routine vision means exams and eyewear, not eye disease or surgery.

Question 10

Vision plans most commonly pay for materials like frames using what mechanism?

Why

Vision plans typically grant a fixed allowance toward frames or contacts (for example, an allowance applied at purchase), and the member pays anything above that allowance. Exams may carry a small copay. Hook: vision gives you an allowance to spend, and you cover the overage.

8 Senior & Special Needs Health Insurance

Question 1

Medicare eligibility is generally available to U.S. citizens and qualified residents beginning at what age?

Why

Medicare's standard eligibility age is 65, the same age tied to its origins alongside Social Security. Certain younger people qualify too, such as those who have received Social Security disability for the required period. Hook: 65 is the magic Medicare age.

Question 2

Besides reaching age 65, a person may qualify for Medicare in which situation?

Why

People under 65 can get Medicare if they've received Social Security disability benefits for 24 months, and certain conditions (end-stage renal disease, ALS) qualify sooner. Hook: long-term disability, not just age 65, can open the Medicare door.

Question 3

Original Medicare consists of which two parts?

Why

Original Medicare is the combination of Part A (hospital insurance) and Part B (medical insurance). Parts C and D are the private add-on options (Advantage and prescription drugs). Hook: Original Medicare equals A plus B, hospital plus medical.

Question 4

Medicare Part A measures hospital and skilled nursing benefits using what?

Why

Part A uses benefit periods: one begins when you're admitted and ends after you've been out of a hospital or skilled nursing facility for 60 days in a row. A new stay after that starts a new benefit period (and a new deductible). Hook: a Part A benefit period resets only after 60 days fully out of care.

Question 5

Medicare Part B primarily covers which of the following?

Why

Part B is medical insurance: it covers doctor visits, outpatient services, preventive care, lab tests, and durable medical equipment like wheelchairs. Inpatient hospital care is Part A. Hook: Part B is the doctor-and-outpatient side of Medicare.

Question 6

Medicare Part B is best described as what?

Why

Part B is optional; those who want it pay a monthly premium (often deducted from Social Security). Because it's voluntary and carries a premium, beneficiaries must usually take action to enroll, and late enrollment can bring a penalty. Hook: Part B is the part you choose and pay a monthly premium for.

Question 7

A Medicare Supplement (Medigap) policy is designed to do what?

Why

Medigap policies, sold by private insurers, pay some or all of the out-of-pocket costs Original Medicare leaves behind, like the Part A deductible and the Part B 20% coinsurance. They work alongside Original Medicare, not in place of it. Hook: Medigap fills the holes Original Medicare leaves.

Question 8

A Medicare Supplement policy generally must include a free look period of how long?

Why

Medigap policies carry a 30-day free look, letting the buyer return the policy for a full refund if they change their mind. It's longer than the typical individual-policy free look. Hook: Medigap gives a generous 30-day free look.

Question 9

Medicaid differs from Medicare primarily in that Medicaid is what?

Why

Medicaid is a joint federal-state program that provides coverage based on financial need, with income and asset limits, rather than on age or work history. Medicare, by contrast, is largely age- or disability-based and federally run. Hook: Medicaid is need-based coverage; Medicare is earned, age-based coverage.

Question 10

Besides being unable to perform ADLs, an LTC policy generally also pays benefits when the insured has what?

Why

LTC benefits are also triggered by severe cognitive impairment, such as Alzheimer's or other dementia, even if the person can still physically perform ADLs, because they need supervision for safety. Hook: serious cognitive decline is its own LTC trigger, separate from the ADL test.

9 Federal Tax Considerations — Health Insurance

Question 1

Which principle best summarizes how disability income benefits are taxed based on who paid the premium and how?

Why

The governing rule is symmetry: tax-free premiums going in lead to taxable benefits coming out, and after-tax premiums going in lead to tax-free benefits coming out. It applies across both individual and group disability coverage. Hook: the tax gets paid somewhere, either on the premium or on the benefit, never both and never neither.

Question 2

Premiums an employer pays for a group health (medical expense) plan covering employees are generally treated how for the employer?

Why

Employer-paid group health premiums are a deductible business expense, a major reason employers offer health benefits. Hook: the employer writes off group health premiums as a business cost.

Question 3

Medical expense benefits an employee receives under an employer group health plan are generally what?

Why

Just like individual medical expense benefits, group medical benefits reimburse care and aren't treated as income, so they're tax-free to the employee. Hook: group medical benefits reimburse bills, so they're tax-free.

Question 4

In a group disability plan where the employer pays 60% of the premium and employees pay 40% with after-tax dollars, how are benefits generally taxed?

Why

When premiums are split, the benefits are taxed in proportion: the part attributable to the employer's deducted premium is taxable, and the part attributable to the employees' after-tax contributions is tax-free. Here that's about 60% taxable and 40% tax-free. Hook: split the premium, split the tax, in the same proportions.

Question 5

Premiums an employer pays for a group disability income plan are generally treated how for the employer?

Why

An employer can deduct group disability premiums as an ordinary business expense, just like other employee benefit costs. The trade-off is that the employee is then taxed on the benefits. Hook: the employer deducts the DI premiums, which is why the employee gets taxed later.

Question 6

For a business overhead expense (BOE) disability policy, how are the premiums and benefits generally treated?

Why

BOE premiums are deductible as a business expense, and because the benefits reimburse otherwise-deductible business expenses, the benefits are taxable to the business. It's consistent with the deduct-now, tax-later pattern. Hook: BOE premiums are deductible going in, so the benefits are taxable coming out.

Question 7

Premiums for a disability buy-sell policy are generally treated how?

Why

Disability buy-sell premiums are not deductible, much like a life insurance buy-sell, and the benefits used to fund the buyout are received income-tax-free. Hook: buy-sell premiums aren't deductible, but the buyout funds come tax-free.

Question 8

Contributions to a health flexible spending account (FSA) through salary reduction are generally treated how?

Why

FSA contributions come out of salary on a pre-tax basis, lowering the employee's taxable income, in exchange for the use-it-or-lose-it restriction on unused funds. Hook: FSA money goes in pre-tax, shrinking your taxable pay.

Question 9

A self-employed person may generally deduct their health insurance premiums how?

Why

The self-employed health insurance deduction lets self-employed individuals deduct premiums for medical, dental, and qualified LTC coverage above the line, without having to itemize, subject to certain limits. Hook: the self-employed get a special above-the-line write-off for their health premiums.

Question 10

Benefits received from a tax-qualified long-term care policy are generally treated how?

Why

Benefits from a tax-qualified LTC policy are generally received income-tax-free, up to a stated per diem limit set by law. Amounts above that limit may be taxable unless they reflect actual incurred expenses. Hook: qualified LTC benefits come tax-free, within a daily cap.

The rest of the Wyoming Health system

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