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Free Alaska Life Insurance & Annuities Practice Questions

Real questions in the style of the Alaska Life Insurance & Annuities licensing exam, pulled straight from the TESTivity course, each with a plain-English explanation. Start with the Alaska-specific rules below, then work the rest, and unlock the full simulator when you're ready to drill.

Questions on exam90
Passing score70
Test providerPearson VUE
Time limit2 hr 15 min
Pass rate58%

That's right — 42% of test-takers do not pass the Alaska Life Insurance & Annuities exam on their first attempt. Make sure you're part of the 58% who do.

First-time pass rate: 58% · Source: NAIC, 2024 (most recent available statistics)

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1 Insurance Basics & Foundational Concepts

Question 1

Which of the following is the best example of a moral hazard?

Why

Moral hazard equals dishonesty. It's the risk that someone deliberately causes or exaggerates a loss to profit, like torching a failing business for the payout. Don't mix it up with morale hazard (carelessness, choice B) or physical hazard (the actual physical conditions in A and D).

Question 2

Cans of gasoline stored in a residential garage are an example of a:

Why

A physical hazard is a tangible condition that increases the likelihood or severity of a loss: gasoline in the garage, a slippery floor, frayed wiring. You can see or touch it. If it's an attitude problem it's morale; if it's dishonesty it's moral; if it's a physical thing sitting there raising the odds, it's physical.

Question 3

The law of large numbers is important to insurers because it:

Why

An insurer can't predict whether your house specifically will burn down, but give them a big enough pool of similar homes and they can predict pretty accurately how many out of the whole group will. That's the law of large numbers: more similar exposures, more reliable predictions. It's the statistical engine that makes pricing coverage possible at all.

Question 4

A policy that pays dividends to its policyholders is referred to as a:

Why

Participating policies 'participate' in the insurer's profits by paying policy dividends, and are typically issued by mutual companies. Nonparticipating policies don't pay dividends and are typically issued by stock companies. The word 'participate' is your tell.

Question 5

An insurer that has been granted a certificate of authority to do business in a state is known as a(n):

Why

An admitted (or authorized) insurer holds a certificate of authority from the state and plays by that state's rules. A non-admitted (unauthorized) insurer hasn't been granted one, which is where surplus lines come in for hard-to-place risks. Also worth knowing: domestic equals home state, foreign equals another state, alien equals another country.

Question 6

The authority that the public reasonably believes an agent has, based on the insurer's actions, is called:

Why

Apparent authority is about appearances: what a reasonable customer believes the agent can do based on how the insurer let the agent act (business cards, signage, company applications). Express authority is spelled out in the contract; implied is what's needed to carry out the express. Apparent is the 'looks legit' bucket.

Question 7

An insurance broker legally represents the:

Why

A broker works for the insured, shopping the market on the client's behalf, while an agent works for the insurer. Same exam, different masters: keep them straight. Broker equals the buyer's side; agent equals the company's side.

Question 8

Because an insurance policy is drafted by the insurer and offered to the applicant on a 'take it or leave it' basis, it is classified as a contract of:

Why

A contract of adhesion is written by one party (the insurer) and accepted as-is by the other, with no line-by-line negotiating. The practical kicker: because the insured didn't get to write it, any ambiguity is interpreted in the insured's favor. That's a courtroom rule worth knowing.

Question 9

An insurance contract is described as 'aleatory' because:

Why

Aleatory means the exchange of value can be lopsided and depends on chance. You might pay $600 in premium and collect $200,000 on a claim, or pay for years and never file one. That built-in inequality, hinging on whether a loss happens, is what makes the contract aleatory.

Question 10

Insurance contracts are considered 'unilateral' because:

Why

Unilateral means only one side makes a legally enforceable promise, and it's the insurer, who promises to pay covered claims. The insured doesn't actually promise to keep paying premiums; they just won't get coverage if they stop. One enforceable promise equals unilateral.

2 Life Insurance Basics

Question 1

In a cross-purchase buy-sell agreement, who owns the life insurance policies?

Why

In a cross-purchase plan, each owner buys a policy on each of the other owners, so they personally buy out a deceased partner's share. Compare that to an entity (stock redemption) plan, where the business owns the policies and does the buying. Cross-purchase equals owners insuring each other; entity equals the company insuring the owners.

Question 2

The human life value approach to determining life insurance needs is based on:

Why

The human life value (HLV) approach asks: what's the dollar value of this person's future income to their family? It estimates the years of earnings left, adjusts to present value, and that's the coverage target. It's an income-based lens, versus the needs approach, which adds up specific obligations instead.

Question 3

All else being equal, paying life insurance premiums monthly instead of annually will result in:

Why

Paying more frequently costs more overall. The insurer loses some investment income and incurs more billing expense, so monthly, quarterly, and semi-annual modes carry small added charges. Annual is the cheapest way to pay. More frequent equals more total dollars.

Question 4

Under a level premium whole life policy, premiums in the early years are:

Why

Level premium smooths a rising cost into a flat payment. In the early years you overpay relative to the true cost of insurance; the insurer banks that excess into reserves (which fuel cash value). In later years, when the real cost would skyrocket, those reserves cover the gap. That's the magic of level premium.

Question 5

If the initial premium is NOT paid with the application, the agent typically must collect the premium and obtain which of the following at policy delivery?

Why

No money up front means no conditional receipt, so coverage doesn't start until the policy is delivered and the first premium is paid. To protect the insurer, the agent collects a statement of good health at delivery, confirming the applicant's health hasn't changed since they applied.

Question 6

A 'preferred' risk classification is given to applicants who:

Why

Preferred risks are the gold-star applicants: nonsmokers, healthy weight, clean history, lower-than-average mortality. Because they're cheaper to insure, they earn the lowest premiums. Standard is average, substandard pays more, and declined can't get coverage at all.

Question 7

An insurer wants detailed information about an applicant's existing medical condition from the doctor who treated it. The insurer would request a(n):

Why

An attending physician's statement (APS) comes from the doctor who actually treated the applicant, used when the application or exam flags something needing more detail. An inspection report covers lifestyle and finances; an MVR covers driving. For specific medical history, it's the APS.

Question 8

An inspection report ordered during underwriting typically provides information about the applicant's:

Why

An inspection report (often from a consumer reporting agency) paints a general picture: lifestyle, finances, habits, reputation, usually for larger policies. It's not a medical record (that's the APS or exam) and not a driving record (that's the MVR). Think background sketch, not diagnosis.

Question 9

Under the Fair Credit Reporting Act, if an insurer uses a consumer report to decline or rate an applicant, the insurer must:

Why

The Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA) protects consumers' privacy. If information from a consumer report leads to an adverse decision (declining or rating up), the insurer must tell the applicant and identify the reporting agency, so the applicant can check and dispute it. Transparency is the whole point.

Question 10

The primary role of an underwriter is to:

Why

The underwriter is the gatekeeper of risk: reviewing the application and supporting info, deciding whether to accept the applicant, and assigning the right risk class and premium. Agents sell, claims examiners pay claims, but the underwriter decides who gets in the door and on what terms.

3 Life Insurance Policies

Question 1

The conversion privilege in a term life policy allows the insured to:

Why

Convertible term lets you swap your term policy for a permanent one (like whole life) without a new medical exam, even if your health has tanked. The new premium is based on your age at conversion. It's a built-in escape hatch from 'temporary' to 'permanent' coverage.

Question 2

Under a level term policy, which of the following remains constant during the term?

Why

Level term keeps both the death benefit and the premium flat for the whole term, the most common and predictable flavor. Contrast that with decreasing term (benefit drops, premium level) and increasing term (benefit rises). 'Level' means nothing moves while the term runs.

Question 3

Which of the following is a feature of whole life insurance?

Why

Whole life is the workhorse of permanent insurance: lifelong coverage, level premiums that never change, a guaranteed death benefit, and guaranteed cash value that builds over time. You pay more than term, but you get permanence plus a savings element with guarantees attached.

Question 4

The cash value in a whole life policy grows on a:

Why

Cash value grows tax-deferred: you don't pay taxes on the gains as they accumulate inside the policy. Tax can come into play later if you surrender for more than your basis, but year to year, that internal growth isn't taxed. Deferred, not necessarily tax-free.

Question 5

A single premium whole life policy is funded by:

Why

Single premium whole life is bought with one big upfront payment, and the policy is immediately paid up for life with substantial cash value from day one. It's often used as a wealth-transfer or estate tool. Heads up: large single-premium policies can become MECs, which changes the tax treatment.

Question 6

Ordinary (straight) whole life insurance requires premium payments:

Why

Ordinary, straight, or continuous-premium whole life spreads premiums across the insured's entire life, you pay until death or maturity. It has the lowest premium of the whole life family because payments are stretched out the longest. Limited-pay and single-premium just compress that schedule.

Question 7

If a universal life policyowner stops paying premiums, the policy will:

Why

UL's flexibility means you can skip premiums, but only as long as there's enough cash value to cover the monthly cost-of-insurance and expense charges. When the cash value runs dry and can't cover those deductions, the policy lapses. Flexible isn't the same as free.

Question 8

An employee who leaves a job covered by group life insurance generally has the right to:

Why

Group term life carries a conversion privilege: when you leave, you can convert to an individual permanent policy without proving insurability, typically within 31 days, though at individual rates for your age. It's a lifeline for someone who's become hard to insure, even though it usually costs more.

Question 9

A contributory group life insurance plan is one in which:

Why

In a contributory plan, employees chip in toward the premium (often via payroll deduction), so insurers usually require at least 75% participation to guard against adverse selection. In a noncontributory plan the employer pays it all and typically 100% of eligible employees must be covered. Who pays drives the participation rule.

Question 10

The document given to an individual covered under a group life plan, summarizing their coverage, is called a:

Why

The employer holds the master policy; each covered member gets a certificate of insurance, a summary of their coverage, benefits, and conversion rights under the group plan. It's proof you're covered, even though you don't hold the actual contract.

4 Life Insurance Provisions, Options & Riders

Question 1

An insured dies with an outstanding policy loan against their whole life policy. How does this affect the death benefit?

Why

A policy loan borrows against the cash value of a permanent policy, and the insurer can't refuse a properly requested loan up to the available cash value. If the loan isn't paid back it doesn't void anything; the company just subtracts the outstanding balance plus interest from the death benefit. A policy loan is essentially your own money, so at death the company nets it out rather than denying the claim.

Question 2

A primary beneficiary dies before the insured, and the insured then dies. Who receives the death benefit?

Why

Beneficiaries are arranged in line: the primary is first, and the contingent (secondary) is the backup. If the primary isn't living when the insured dies, the proceeds drop down to the contingent beneficiary. The estate only gets involved when no named beneficiary survives. Think contingent equals contingency plan, the backup who steps in.

Question 3

A policy names three children equally, per stirpes. One child predeceases the insured, leaving two children of their own. At the insured's death, how are proceeds distributed?

Why

Per stirpes means by branch: if a named beneficiary dies first, their share flows down to their own descendants rather than being reabsorbed by the surviving beneficiaries. So the late child's one-third doesn't vanish or get split among the siblings; it goes to that child's kids. Contrast per capita (by head), where only surviving named beneficiaries share. Hook: stirpes sounds like stem or branch, and the share follows the family branch down.

Question 4

Why is naming a minor as the direct beneficiary of a life insurance policy generally problematic?

Why

A minor can absolutely be named, but an insurer won't hand a large check to a child who can't legally give a valid receipt. Without planning, a court has to appoint a guardian to manage the money, which is slow, costly, and out of the family's control. That's why people set up a trust or custodial arrangement, or name a trusted adult to manage it. Minors can inherit; they just can't legally sign for it, so arrange a manager in advance.

Question 5

Policy dividends from a participating (par) whole life policy are best described as what?

Why

A participating policy can pay dividends, but they're not investment earnings, they're treated as a return of premium the company overcharged, which is exactly why they're generally not taxable. And because they depend on the insurer's actual experience (mortality, expenses, investment results), they're never guaranteed. A dividend is your own money coming back, not a profit the company promises.

Question 6

Which dividend option directly lowers the policyowner's out-of-pocket cost on the next premium?

Why

The reduction of premium option applies the dividend against the next premium due, so the owner simply pays the difference out of pocket. It's a practical choice for someone who wants to ease the ongoing cost of keeping the policy rather than build extra value. In plain terms, the dividend pays part of your bill for you.

Question 7

Under the interest-only settlement option, what does the beneficiary receive?

Why

With the interest-only option, the insurer keeps the death benefit (the principal) and pays the beneficiary just the interest it earns, leaving the full amount intact for later. It's useful when a beneficiary wants some income now but isn't ready to touch the lump sum. The principal stays parked; only the interest gets paid out.

Question 8

A beneficiary wants the proceeds paid out over exactly 10 years. Which settlement option fits?

Why

The fixed period option spreads the proceeds plus interest over a set length of time you choose, say 10 years, and the payment size is simply whatever it takes to empty the fund in that window. Its cousin, fixed amount, instead locks the dollar figure of each payment and lets the time vary. Hook: fixed period, you pick the time; fixed amount, you pick the dollar amount.

Question 9

The guaranteed insurability rider gives the insured what right?

Why

The guaranteed insurability rider (GIR) lets the insured purchase extra coverage at specified ages or life events, like marriage or the birth of a child, with no new medical exam or evidence of insurability. It's pure gold for someone whose health later declines, because the price stays tied to the original good-health rating. It guarantees you remain insurable later, no matter how your health turns out.

Question 10

An accidental death benefit (double indemnity) rider pays an additional amount only when the insured's death results from what?

Why

The accidental death benefit rider, often called double indemnity, pays extra (frequently twice the face amount) only when death is caused by an accident, and usually only if death occurs within a set period (commonly 90 days) of that accident and before a stated age. Death from illness or natural causes pays the base amount only. It's strictly an accident rider, so natural causes don't trigger the bonus.

5 Annuities

Question 1

A deferred annuity is one that does what?

Why

A deferred annuity postpones the income phase, sometimes by decades, while the money grows tax-deferred in the meantime. It's the accumulation-focused cousin of the immediate annuity. Hook: deferred means the payout is deferred to later, so it's built for growing money before you need the income.

Question 2

A flexible premium deferred annuity allows the owner to do what?

Why

A flexible premium annuity lets you fund it on your own schedule, more this year, less or nothing next, rather than with one fixed lump sum. By definition these are deferred, because you can't keep adding money to a contract that's already paying out. Hook: flexible premium equals flexible deposits, and it's always a deferred contract.

Question 3

A single premium annuity is funded how?

Why

A single premium annuity is bought with one lump sum up front and takes no further deposits. It can be immediate (income starts now) or deferred (income later), but either way the funding is one-and-done. Hook: single premium means a single payment buys the whole contract.

Question 4

In a fixed annuity, who bears the investment risk?

Why

Because the insurer guarantees both the interest rate and the payout amount in a fixed annuity, the insurer, not the owner, carries the investment risk. If the company's general-account investments underperform, it still must honor the guarantee. Hook: the guarantees live with the insurer, so the risk does too.

Question 5

A life annuity with a refund feature (cash or installment refund) guarantees what at a minimum?

Why

A refund annuity promises that if the annuitant dies before collecting at least what they paid in, the difference goes to a beneficiary, either as a lump sum (cash refund) or as continued payments (installment refund). It guarantees the premium isn't lost to an early death, in exchange for a somewhat smaller payment than life only. Hook: refund means you or your beneficiary are guaranteed to get back at least what you put in.

Question 6

A joint and survivor annuity continues paying income for how long?

Why

A joint and survivor option covers two lives, typically a couple, and keeps paying until both have died; the survivor continues to receive income (sometimes reduced, like a 50% or two-thirds survivor benefit). Because it spans two lifetimes, each payment is smaller than a single-life option. Hook: payments last until the second death, so the survivor isn't left without income.

Question 7

Earnings inside a nonqualified annuity during the accumulation phase are treated how for tax purposes?

Why

One of the annuity's main draws is tax deferral: interest and gains compound untaxed during accumulation, and you owe tax only when money comes out. Deferring the tax lets more dollars stay invested and compound. Hook: nothing is taxed until you take it out, which is the whole appeal of the accumulation phase.

Question 8

In a qualified annuity funded with pre-tax dollars, how are distributions generally taxed?

Why

A qualified annuity is funded with pre-tax money (think of one held inside a qualified retirement plan), so no tax has been paid on any of it yet. That means the whole distribution, contributions and earnings alike, is taxed as ordinary income. Contrast a nonqualified annuity, where only the earnings are taxable because the basis was after-tax. Hook: pre-tax in means fully taxable out.

Question 9

When recommending an annuity, a producer must primarily ensure what?

Why

Annuity suitability rules require the producer to have reasonable grounds that the recommendation fits the consumer's finances, time horizon, liquidity needs, and goals, all gathered before the sale. The focus is the customer's best interest, not the sale itself. Hook: suitability means the product has to fit the person, not the other way around.

Question 10

A structured settlement annuity is commonly used to do what?

Why

A structured settlement annuity takes a lump-sum legal award, say from an injury claim, and turns it into a stream of guaranteed payments, giving the recipient stable long-term income instead of a single check that could be spent too quickly. Hook: it structures a settlement into scheduled payments rather than one lump sum.

6 Federal Tax Considerations — Life, Annuities & Qualified Plans

Question 1

A beneficiary leaves the death benefit with the insurer under an interest-bearing settlement option. What is the tax treatment of the payments?

Why

The death benefit itself stays income-tax-free even when paid out over time, but any interest the insurer credits while holding the money is taxable income to the beneficiary. Hook: the original benefit is tax-free; the earnings on top of it are not, just like interest in any account.

Question 2

A life insurance death benefit may be included in the insured's taxable estate when which of the following is true?

Why

Although the death benefit is income-tax-free, it can still be pulled into the insured's taxable estate if the insured kept incidents of ownership, such as the right to change the beneficiary, take a loan, or surrender the policy. Removing those controls (often through an irrevocable life insurance trust) is how planners keep proceeds out of the taxable estate. Hook: income-tax-free is not the same as estate-tax-free, and control is what drags it into the estate.

Question 3

Under the transfer-for-value rule, what can happen to the income-tax-free status of a death benefit?

Why

Normally death benefits are income-tax-free, but the transfer-for-value rule says that if a policy is sold or transferred for valuable consideration, the portion of the benefit above the buyer's cost can become taxable income. There are key exceptions (transfers to the insured, a business partner, a partnership, or a corporation in which the insured is an officer or shareholder). Hook: sell a policy for value and you can taint the tax-free payout, unless an exception applies.

Question 4

How is the growth of cash value inside a permanent life insurance policy generally treated while the policy stays in force?

Why

The cash value in a permanent policy grows tax-deferred, meaning there's no annual tax on the inside buildup as long as the policy stays in force. This is one of the quiet advantages of permanent insurance over a fully taxable account. Hook: nothing is taxed on the growth while the policy is alive and intact.

Question 5

How are policy dividends and the interest they earn under the accumulation option treated for tax?

Why

Because a dividend is treated as a return of overpaid premium, it isn't taxable when paid. But if you leave it to accumulate at interest, that interest is taxable, the same logic found everywhere in tax: your own money back is free, earnings on it are taxed. Hook: dividend equals return of premium (free), interest on it equals earnings (taxed).

Question 6

An insured who is certified as terminally ill receives accelerated death benefits from their life policy. How are these benefits generally taxed?

Why

Accelerated (living) benefits paid to a terminally ill insured are generally treated like a tax-free death benefit, since the law recognizes the person is drawing on their own coverage early during a terminal illness. Hook: terminally ill plus accelerated benefits equals tax-free, the same treatment the death benefit itself would receive.

Question 7

A key employee dies and the business collects the death benefit from a key person policy. How are the proceeds generally taxed to the business?

Why

The death benefit a business receives from a key person policy is generally income-tax-free, just like any other life insurance death benefit. That's the payoff for not being able to deduct the premiums. Hook: nondeductible premiums in, tax-free proceeds out, the classic key person trade-off.

Question 8

A pre-annuitization withdrawal from a nonqualified deferred annuity is taxed under which method?

Why

Random withdrawals from a nonqualified annuity come out LIFO, last in first out, so the taxable earnings are treated as withdrawn before your basis. Pull money out early and you're taxed on gain first. Hook: gains exit first under LIFO, so early withdrawals are taxable before you ever touch your principal.

Question 9

Compared with a nonqualified plan, a qualified retirement plan must do what?

Why

A qualified plan must satisfy IRS and ERISA standards, including nondiscrimination rules that prevent it from favoring owners and highly paid employees, in exchange for its tax breaks. A nonqualified plan skips those rules but also skips the upfront tax advantages and can favor select employees. Hook: qualified plans earn tax breaks by following the rules; nonqualified plans trade the breaks for flexibility.

Question 10

Taking a taxable distribution from a traditional IRA or qualified plan before age 59 1/2 generally results in what, absent an exception?

Why

Pull money out of a traditional IRA or qualified plan before age 59 1/2 and, unless an exception applies, you owe a 10% early-withdrawal penalty in addition to the regular income tax. It's the same 59 1/2 line that applies to annuities. Hook: 59 1/2 is the universal early-access line; cross it early and there's a 10% penalty.

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