Free North Carolina Accident & Health Practice Questions
Real questions in the style of the North Carolina Accident & Health licensing exam, pulled straight
from the TESTivity course — 10 free per chapter, each with a plain-English
explanation. Start with the North Carolina-specific rules below, then work the rest, and
unlock the full simulator when you're ready to drill.
Questions on exam55
Passing score70%
Test providerPearson VUE
Time limit1 hr 15 min
Pass rate63%
That's right — 37% of test-takers do not pass the North Carolina Accident & Health exam
on their first attempt. Make sure you're part of the 63% who do.
★ Federal & North Carolina Insurance Regulation Start here — the North Carolina-specific rules people most often missNorth Carolina-specific
Score 0 / 0
Question 1
North Carolina's state continuation (mini-COBRA) for small employers (2-19 employees) provides up to 18 months of coverage. What distinctive feature does North Carolina apply to the election period?
Why
North Carolina's continuation applies to 2-19 employee groups for up to 18 months at 102% of premium, with a distinctive 31-day election period (most states use 30 days). Hook: NC continuation gives an extra day - a 31-day election window.
Question 2
Because the North Carolina Insurance Commissioner is an independently elected constitutional officer, the office has authority to:
Why
As an elected officer independent of the Governor, North Carolina's Commissioner holds broad authority to enforce Chapter 58 of the N.C.G.S., approve rates and forms, license producers, and oversee insurer financial condition. Hook: NC's elected commissioner wields full regulatory power - rates, forms, licensing, and solvency - on the voters' mandate.
Question 3
How does North Carolina operate its ACA health insurance marketplace?
Why
A FEDERALLY-FACILITATED marketplace (HealthCare.gov) — North Carolina did not build a state exchange (Authority: CMS.)
Question 4
North Carolina's children's health insurance (CHIP) coverage is known as:
Why
NC Health Choice was North Carolina's CHIP program; effective April 1, 2023 its children moved into NC Medicaid, so CHIP coverage is now delivered through NC Medicaid (Authority: NC Medicaid / NCDHHS.)
Question 5
What is the status of the ACA Medicaid expansion in North Carolina?
Why
YES — North Carolina expanded Medicaid under the ACA (adults up to 138% of the federal poverty level), effective December 1, 2023 (Authority: NC Medicaid / NCDHHS.)
Question 6
Under North Carolina's prompt-payment rules, a clean electronic health claim must generally be paid within:
Why
30 calendar days to pay, deny, or notify on a clean claim (Authority: N.C.G.S. §58-3-225.)
Question 7
The North Carolina Life and Health Insurance Guaranty Association protects health insurance benefits up to:
Why
$500,000 for a health benefit plan; $300,000 for other health coverages (Authority: N.C.G.S. §58-62-21(d).)
Question 8
The ACA established health insurance marketplaces (exchanges) primarily to:
Why
The marketplaces (exchanges) let individuals and small employers shop for and compare qualified health plans, and they are where eligible buyers can claim premium subsidies. Hook: the exchange is the storefront for comparing and buying ACA health plans.
Question 9
Medicare is a federal program that primarily provides health coverage for:
Why
Medicare mainly serves people 65 and older, along with certain younger individuals with disabilities or end-stage renal disease. Hook: Medicare is for 65-plus and certain disabled individuals.
Question 10
Medicare Part A and Part B are commonly known as:
Why
Part A is hospital insurance (inpatient care) and Part B is medical insurance (physician and outpatient services). Part C is Medicare Advantage and Part D is prescription drugs. Hook: A is hospital, B is medical, the core of Medicare.
1Insurance Basics & Foundational Concepts
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Question 1
Which type of risk is the only kind that insurance is designed to cover?
Why
Insurance only deals with pure risk: situations where there's a chance of loss or no loss, but no chance of gain (like your house burning down). Speculative risk involves a chance of loss, no loss, OR gain. That's gambling and investing, and insurers won't touch it. If there's an upside, it's not insurable.
Question 2
In insurance terms, a 'peril' refers to:
Why
Keep these three straight and you'll bank easy points all day: a peril is the cause of loss (fire, wind, theft), a hazard is something that increases the chance or severity of that loss, and risk is the uncertainty of loss itself. The peril is the thing that actually does the damage.
Question 3
A hazard is best defined as:
Why
A hazard doesn't cause the loss itself; it just makes a loss more likely or more severe. Icy steps, frayed wiring, a careless attitude: none of those start the fire or the fall, but they tip the odds. Causes of loss are perils; hazards just stack the deck.
Question 4
Which of the following is the best example of a moral hazard?
Why
Moral hazard equals dishonesty. It's the risk that someone deliberately causes or exaggerates a loss to profit, like torching a failing business for the payout. Don't mix it up with morale hazard (carelessness, choice B) or physical hazard (the actual physical conditions in A and D).
Question 5
An insured who becomes careless about safety simply because they know they have insurance is displaying a:
Why
Morale hazard is the 'eh, I'm covered' attitude: indifference or carelessness that creeps in because insurance exists. It's not dishonesty (that's moral hazard) and it's not a physical condition (physical hazard). Trick to remember: moralE hazard is about a person's lazy attitudE.
Question 6
Cans of gasoline stored in a residential garage are an example of a:
Why
A physical hazard is a tangible condition that increases the likelihood or severity of a loss: gasoline in the garage, a slippery floor, frayed wiring. You can see or touch it. If it's an attitude problem it's morale; if it's dishonesty it's moral; if it's a physical thing sitting there raising the odds, it's physical.
Question 7
The law of large numbers is important to insurers because it:
Why
An insurer can't predict whether your house specifically will burn down, but give them a big enough pool of similar homes and they can predict pretty accurately how many out of the whole group will. That's the law of large numbers: more similar exposures, more reliable predictions. It's the statistical engine that makes pricing coverage possible at all.
Question 8
Purchasing an insurance policy is an example of which risk management technique?
Why
Buying insurance is the classic risk transfer: you hand the financial consequences of a loss to the insurer in exchange for a premium. Avoidance means not doing the risky thing at all, retention means keeping the risk yourself (like a deductible), and reduction means lowering the odds or severity (smoke detectors). Insurance equals transfer.
Question 9
The principle of indemnity is best described as:
Why
Indemnity is the whole heartbeat of insurance: you get made whole, not rich. The goal is to put you back where you were financially right before the loss, no better, no worse. That's why you can't insure a $20,000 car for $80,000 and cash in. Insurance reimburses a loss; it doesn't hand out winnings.
Question 10
Which of the following is a characteristic of an ideally insurable risk?
Why
Insurers like risks that are accidental (due to chance, not intentional) and definite and measurable (you can pin down when, where, and how much). Add in 'predictable for large groups,' 'not catastrophic to the insurer,' and 'affordable premium,' and you've got the recipe for an insurable risk. A loss someone causes on purpose? Not insurable.
2Accident & Health Insurance Basics
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Question 1
Accident and health insurance is designed to cover financial losses arising from which two perils?
Why
A&H insurance exists to handle the two ways your health can cost you money: accidents (sudden injuries) and sickness (illnesses and conditions). Whether the policy pays for medical bills or lost income, those are the two triggering perils. Hook: A&H equals the two perils right in the name, accident and sickness.
Question 2
Disability income insurance is designed primarily to do what?
Why
Disability income coverage doesn't pay medical bills; it replaces a paycheck. When illness or injury keeps you from working, it provides periodic income (usually a percentage of your earnings) so the bills at home still get paid. Hook: disability income protects the paycheck, not the medical bill.
Question 3
Modern accident policies generally define a covered accident using which standard?
Why
Older policies used the stricter accidental means test (the cause had to be unexpected), but the modern trend is the accidental results, or accidental bodily injury, standard, which only requires that the injury be unintended. It's a more generous, claimant-friendly definition. Hook: results, not means; the newer standard looks at the unexpected injury, not the cause.
Question 4
For coverage purposes, a sickness under a health policy is typically defined as an illness that does what?
Why
Most health policies define a covered sickness as one that first appears (manifests) and is contracted while the coverage is in force. This wording is what lets insurers exclude pre-existing conditions that showed up before the policy started. Hook: a covered sickness has to show up on the policy's watch, not before it began.
Question 5
Medical expense insurance is designed to do what?
Why
Medical expense insurance pays for the care itself, hospital stays, surgery, doctor visits, and related services, rather than replacing income. It's the bucket most people picture when they hear health insurance. Hook: medical expense pays the providers; disability income pays you.
Question 6
How are disability income benefits typically paid?
Why
Disability income is paid as a stream of periodic payments (usually monthly) for as long as the qualifying disability lasts, up to the policy's benefit period. It functions like a substitute paycheck rather than a one-time payout. Hook: think of it as a replacement salary that keeps coming while you can't work.
Question 7
An accidental death and dismemberment (AD&D) policy pays benefits for which of the following?
Why
AD&D pays only for losses caused by accidents: a death benefit if an accident is fatal, and a scheduled benefit for accidental dismemberment, such as losing a hand, foot, or eyesight. Death or loss from illness isn't covered. Hook: AD&D is strictly accident-driven; both the death and the dismemberment must come from an accident.
Question 8
Under an AD&D policy, the capital sum refers to what?
Why
The principal sum is the full benefit, paid for accidental death or for severe losses like both hands or both eyes. The capital sum is a percentage of that principal sum, paid for the loss of a single member or sight in one eye. Hook: principal sum is the whole pie (death or two losses); capital sum is a slice (one loss).
Question 9
In group health insurance, the master contract is issued to whom?
Why
In group coverage the insurer issues one master contract to the group sponsor (typically the employer), and each covered member receives a certificate of coverage rather than an individual policy. Hook: the employer holds the master contract; employees hold certificates.
Question 10
Which type of coverage insures a group of people who are not individually named, such as passengers on an airline or students on a field trip?
Why
Blanket coverage protects a constantly changing group whose members aren't named individually, like airline passengers, campers, or a sports team. You're covered simply because you belong to the defined group during the covered activity. Hook: a blanket covers whoever happens to be under it, no individual names required.
3Individual A&H Policy Provisions
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Question 1
Under the entire contract provision of an individual health policy, the contract consists of what?
Why
The entire contract is just the policy plus the application attached to it. Nothing outside those documents, not the agent's promises and not the company's internal rules, can be made part of the agreement. Hook: if it isn't in the policy or the attached application, it isn't in the contract.
Question 2
Under the entire contract; changes provision, who has the authority to change the terms of a health policy?
Why
Changes to the contract are valid only when approved in writing by an executive officer of the insurer, and even then they must be noted on or attached to the policy. An agent has no power to waive or alter provisions. Hook: only a company officer can change the deal, never the agent at your kitchen table.
Question 3
The time limit on certain defenses (incontestability) provision generally prevents the insurer from voiding a health policy for misstatements after the policy has been in force for how long?
Why
After the policy has been in force for a set period, commonly two years, the insurer can no longer void it or deny a claim because of misstatements in the application, with fraudulent misstatements being the usual exception. It mirrors the incontestable clause in life insurance. Hook: after about two years, honest application errors can no longer be used against the claim.
Question 4
After the time limit on certain defenses has passed, how does it affect a claim involving a pre-existing condition that was not specifically excluded?
Why
Once the time limit passes, the insurer loses the right to deny a claim merely because the condition predated the policy, unless that condition was specifically named and excluded by endorsement. It protects insureds from late-discovered, unintentional omissions. Hook: after the clock runs out, an unexcluded pre-existing condition can't be used to refuse the claim.
Question 5
The grace period provision in a health policy does what?
Why
The grace period is a short window after a premium's due date during which the insured can still pay and keep the policy in force, so a late payment doesn't immediately cause a lapse. Hook: the grace period is breathing room to pay late without losing coverage.
Question 6
Under the model uniform provisions, the grace period for a health policy with monthly premiums is generally how long?
Why
The grace period varies with how often premiums are paid: 7 days for weekly premiums, 10 days for monthly premiums, and 31 days for any other mode. The less often you pay, the longer the grace period. Hook: weekly 7, monthly 10, everything else 31, so the rarer the payment, the longer the grace.
Question 7
Under the reinstatement provision, if a lapsed policy's reinstatement application is neither approved nor declined, the policy is automatically reinstated after how many days?
Why
If the insurer requires an application for reinstatement and then neither approves it nor rejects it by sending written notice, the policy is automatically reinstated on the 45th day after the application date. Hook: insurer silence for 45 days equals automatic reinstatement.
Question 8
When a lapsed health policy is reinstated, how are accident and sickness losses typically covered?
Why
On reinstatement, accidental injury losses are covered immediately, but sickness is covered only if it begins more than 10 days after the reinstatement date. The 10-day gap on sickness exists to discourage someone from reinstating only because they've just become ill. Hook: accidents covered at once, sickness has to wait 10 days after reinstatement.
Question 9
Under the optional unpaid premium provision, what may an insurer do when a claim is payable and a premium is overdue?
Why
The unpaid premium provision lets the insurer simply subtract any premium then due and unpaid from the benefits it pays out, rather than denying the claim. Hook: the insurer just nets the overdue premium out of the claim check.
Question 10
Under the notice of claim provision, the insured must generally give written notice of a claim within how many days of a loss?
Why
Written notice of claim must be given within 20 days after a covered loss, or as soon as reasonably possible. It simply alerts the insurer that a claim is coming. Hook: 20 days to put the insurer on notice that a loss occurred.
4Disability Income & Related Insurance
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Question 1
Under an "own occupation" (own occ) definition of total disability, the insured is considered totally disabled when they cannot do what?
Why
The own-occupation definition pays benefits when the insured can't perform the main duties of their specific occupation, even if they could work in some other field. It's the more generous definition because it judges disability against your actual career. Hook: own occ asks only whether you can do your own job.
Question 2
An "any occupation" (any occ) definition of total disability is generally satisfied only when the insured cannot do what?
Why
The any-occupation definition is stricter and more insurer-friendly: you're considered totally disabled only if you can't work in any job that fits your background. It's harder to qualify for benefits than under own occ. Hook: any occ asks whether you can do any suitable job, not just your old one.
Question 3
Which definition of total disability is generally more favorable to the insured?
Why
Own occupation is the more favorable, and more expensive, definition, because it pays when you can't do your specific job regardless of whether you could earn a living elsewhere. Any occ, by contrast, sets a much higher bar to collect. Hook: own occ favors the insured, any occ favors the insurer.
Question 4
A residual disability benefit pays an amount based on what?
Why
Residual disability coverage pays a partial benefit scaled to your loss of income, so if a disability cuts your earnings by 40%, you collect roughly 40% of the total disability benefit. It bridges the gap when you can work but not at full capacity. Hook: residual benefits track your percentage of lost income.
Question 5
Under a presumptive disability provision, an insured is automatically considered totally disabled upon which of the following?
Why
Presumptive disability treats certain severe losses, such as total loss of sight, hearing, speech, or any two limbs, as automatically and totally disabling, so full benefits are paid even if the insured could technically still work. Often no elimination period applies. Hook: lose sight, hearing, speech, or two limbs and you're presumed totally disabled, no questions asked.
Question 6
Under a recurrent disability provision, if an insured returns to work and then becomes disabled again from the same cause within the stated period, the second disability is treated how?
Why
The recurrent disability provision says that a relapse from the same cause within a set time (often six months) counts as a continuation of the prior claim, so the insured doesn't have to satisfy a brand-new elimination period. A later, unrelated disability would start fresh. Hook: same cause, soon after, means it picks up where it left off, no new waiting period.
Question 7
The elimination period in a disability income policy is best described as what?
Why
The elimination (or waiting) period is the time after a disability begins before benefits start to accrue, functioning like a time deductible. A 90-day elimination period means no benefits for the first 90 days. Hook: the elimination period is the unpaid waiting stretch before benefits begin.
Question 8
How does choosing a longer elimination period generally affect the premium of a disability income policy?
Why
A longer elimination period means the insurer pays out less often and later, so it charges a lower premium. The insured accepts more of the short-term risk in exchange for a cheaper policy. Hook: wait longer to collect, pay less to own, so a longer elimination period means a lower premium.
Question 9
The benefit period in a disability income policy refers to what?
Why
The benefit period is the longest span the policy will keep paying for a single disability, such as 2 years, 5 years, or to age 65. A longer benefit period raises the premium. Hook: the benefit period is how long the checks can keep coming.
Question 10
An insured with a 60-day elimination period becomes disabled. When do benefits begin to accrue?
Why
No benefits are paid during the elimination period, so with a 60-day elimination period, benefits start accruing only after those 60 days of continuous disability have passed. The insured covers that initial gap themselves. Hook: nothing is paid until the elimination period clock runs out.
5Medical Plans
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Question 1
Basic medical expense (first-dollar) coverage is generally characterized by what?
Why
Basic medical expense plans (hospital, surgical, and physician expense) typically pay from the first dollar with little or no deductible, but they cap benefits at modest limits. They cover routine costs well but can run out fast for a catastrophic claim. Hook: basic plans pay early but shallow, low deductible and low ceiling.
Question 2
Under a usual, customary, and reasonable (UCR) approach, a surgical claim is generally paid based on what?
Why
UCR ties the allowable benefit to what providers in the same area normally charge for that procedure, rather than to a flat schedule. A charge far above the local norm may not be fully covered. Hook: UCR pays the going local rate, not just any billed amount.
Question 3
A surgical expense policy that lists a specific dollar amount payable for each type of operation uses what approach?
Why
A scheduled surgical plan assigns a set dollar benefit to each listed procedure, so an appendectomy pays one amount and a different surgery pays another. If the surgeon charges more than the schedule amount, the insured covers the difference. Hook: a surgical schedule is a fixed price list, one dollar figure per operation.
Question 4
Basic hospital expense coverage typically provides benefits for what?
Why
Basic hospital expense pays a daily room-and-board benefit (often up to a stated maximum per day and number of days) plus miscellaneous hospital charges like lab work and medications. It doesn't cover the surgeon, which is surgical expense. Hook: hospital expense pays for the bed and the hospital's charges, not the surgeon.
Question 5
Compared with basic medical expense coverage, major medical insurance is generally characterized by what?
Why
Major medical is built for big claims: it features high (or no) maximum benefits, a deductible, and coinsurance, in exchange for covering a broad range of expenses. The cost sharing is the trade-off for that wide, deep protection. Hook: major medical goes big and broad, with a deductible and coinsurance along the way.
Question 6
A comprehensive major medical plan is best described as what?
Why
Comprehensive major medical merges basic and major medical into one policy, so a single deductible and coinsurance structure covers everything from routine care up through catastrophic claims. Hook: comprehensive equals basic plus major rolled into one plan with one deductible.
Question 7
A supplementary major medical plan is designed to do what?
Why
Supplementary (or superimposed) major medical layers on top of a basic plan, picking up large or extended expenses once the basic plan's limited benefits run out. Hook: supplementary major medical is the backup layer that kicks in after basic runs dry.
Question 8
In a supplementary major medical plan, the corridor deductible refers to the amount the insured pays where?
Why
The corridor deductible is the gap the insured must cover between the exhaustion of the basic plan's benefits and the start of the supplementary major medical benefits. It links the two layers together. Hook: the corridor is the deductible bridge between basic running out and major medical starting.
Question 9
A major medical plan has an 80/20 coinsurance feature and a $2,000 out-of-pocket maximum (in addition to the deductible). Once the insured's coinsurance payments reach $2,000 for the year, what happens?
Why
The out-of-pocket maximum (stop-loss) caps the insured's coinsurance share. Once the insured has paid $2,000 in coinsurance, the plan switches to paying 100% of additional covered charges for the rest of the year, protecting against a catastrophic bill. Hook: hit the out-of-pocket max and your 20% share drops to 0%.
Question 10
A health maintenance organization (HMO) is generally financed through what?
Why
An HMO operates on a prepaid basis: members pay a fixed periodic amount and receive comprehensive services from the HMO's providers, who are often paid by capitation (a set fee per member). It shifts the focus from billing per service to managing care within a fixed budget. Hook: an HMO is prepaid care, a flat fee buys a defined set of services.
6Group Health Insurance
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Question 1
In a group health plan, the individual covered members receive what document evidencing their coverage?
Why
The insurer issues one master contract to the group sponsor, and each covered member gets a certificate of coverage summarizing their benefits and rights. The members don't hold individual policies. Hook: the sponsor gets the master contract, the members get certificates.
Question 2
To be eligible for group insurance, a group must generally have been formed for what reason?
Why
A valid insurable group must exist for some primary reason other than getting insurance, such as an employer, a union, or a trade association, so the coverage is incidental and the group isn't just assembled to game the system. Hook: the group has to exist first for another reason, with insurance as a perk, not the point.
Question 3
Under experience rating, a large group's premium is based primarily on what?
Why
Experience rating sets a group's premium according to its own claims history, so a group with low claims earns lower rates. It's common for larger groups, while smaller groups are often community rated using a broader pool. Hook: experience rating prices you on your own group's track record.
Question 4
Community rating sets premiums based on what?
Why
Community rating spreads risk across a wide pool and charges similar rates regardless of any one group's experience, which protects small groups from volatile pricing. It's the counterpart to experience rating. Hook: community rating prices everyone off the shared community pool, not your group alone.
Question 5
A new employee who must wait a set time after being hired before becoming eligible for the group plan is in what period?
Why
The probationary period is the initial stretch of employment, often 30 to 90 days, that a new hire must complete before becoming eligible to enroll. It's followed by the enrollment (eligibility) period when they can actually sign up. Hook: the probationary period is the wait before a new hire can even enroll.
Question 6
The enrollment (eligibility) period in a group plan is the window during which an eligible employee may do what?
Why
Once eligible, an employee gets an enrollment period, a limited window often around 31 days, to elect coverage. Enroll on time and no evidence of insurability is required; miss it and they may become a late enrollee. Hook: the enrollment period is your on-time window to sign up without health questions.
Question 7
In a contributory group plan, where employees pay part of the premium, insurers typically require what minimum level of participation?
Why
Because employees share the cost in a contributory plan, not everyone signs up, so insurers usually require around 75% participation to guard against adverse selection. Hook: contributory plans need roughly three-quarters in to keep the risk pool healthy.
Question 8
In a noncontributory group plan, what level of eligible-employee participation is generally required, and why?
Why
When the employer pays 100% of the premium (noncontributory), insurers require 100% of eligible employees to be covered. Since employees pay nothing and everyone is in, healthy and unhealthy alike, adverse selection nearly disappears. Hook: the employer pays all, so everyone's in, 100% participation.
Question 9
A group plan in which the employer pays the entire premium is called what?
Why
A noncontributory plan is fully employer-paid; the employee contributes nothing toward the premium. A contributory plan, by contrast, has the employee pay a share. Hook: noncontributory means the employee does not contribute, so the employer foots the whole bill.
Question 10
An employee who declines coverage during the initial enrollment period and later wants to join is generally treated as what?
Why
Someone who passes up the on-time enrollment window becomes a late enrollee and may have to provide evidence of insurability or wait until an open enrollment period to join. The penalty discourages waiting until you're sick to sign up. Hook: enroll late and you may have to prove insurability or wait, the cost of not signing up on time.
7Dental & Vision Insurance
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Question 1
A scheduled (table of allowances) dental plan pays benefits how?
Why
A scheduled dental plan lists a set dollar benefit for each covered procedure, regardless of what the dentist actually charges. If the bill exceeds the schedule amount, the patient pays the difference. Hook: scheduled dental is a fixed price list, one dollar figure per procedure.
Question 2
A nonscheduled (comprehensive) dental plan typically pays benefits based on what?
Why
A nonscheduled, or comprehensive, dental plan pays a percentage of the UCR charge for each service rather than a fixed dollar amount, so benefits track local prevailing fees. It's the dental version of UCR-based medical coverage. Hook: nonscheduled dental pays a percentage of the going UCR rate, not a fixed table.
Question 3
A combination dental plan does what?
Why
A combination plan blends the two methods, often paying preventive and basic care on a UCR percentage basis while using a fixed schedule for certain services (or vice versa), to balance predictability and flexibility. Hook: a combination plan mixes scheduled and nonscheduled methods in one plan.
Question 4
A dental HMO (DHMO) generally pays participating dentists how?
Why
Like a medical HMO, a DHMO pays network dentists a capitation fee, a set amount per member assigned to them regardless of services used, and members generally must use network dentists. It emphasizes prepaid, managed dental care. Hook: a DHMO pays dentists per member (capitation), not per procedure.
Question 5
A dental PPO is characterized by what?
Why
A dental PPO contracts with a network of dentists who accept negotiated (discounted) fees, while still letting members see out-of-network dentists at a higher out-of-pocket cost. It mirrors the medical PPO model. Hook: a dental PPO is the discounted-network-with-an-exit-option model.
Question 6
In a typical dental plan, preventive and diagnostic services such as cleanings, exams, and x-rays are usually covered at what level?
Why
Plans usually cover preventive and diagnostic care at or near 100% with no deductible, because catching problems early is cheaper than treating them later. It's the same prevention logic as in managed medical care. Hook: prevention is usually free (100%, no deductible) because it saves the plan money down the road.
Question 7
Basic restorative dental services such as fillings and simple extractions are commonly covered at roughly what coinsurance level?
Why
Basic restorative procedures typically sit in the middle tier, often paid at around 80%, with the patient covering the remaining 20% after any deductible. Hook: basic care lands in the middle, often about 80% covered.
Question 8
Major dental services such as crowns, bridges, and dentures are most commonly covered at approximately what coinsurance level, and why lower than preventive care?
Why
Major services are usually covered at about 50%, the lowest tier, because they are expensive, so the plan shifts more of the cost to the patient through higher coinsurance. The three-tier 100/80/50 pattern is the classic dental structure. Hook: the bigger and pricier the work, the smaller the share the plan pays, with major care around 50%.
Question 9
The common 100/80/50 structure in a dental plan refers to the coinsurance for which categories, in order?
Why
The 100/80/50 pattern maps to the three dental tiers: preventive/diagnostic at 100%, basic/restorative at 80%, and major at 50%. Knowing this ladder answers many dental questions at a glance. Hook: 100/80/50 equals preventive, basic, major, top to bottom.
Question 10
Orthodontia coverage in a dental plan is typically characterized by what?
Why
Orthodontia is usually a distinct, optional benefit with its own lifetime maximum (not an annual one) and a lower coinsurance percentage, and it's frequently limited to dependent children. Hook: ortho stands apart, with its own lifetime cap, lower coverage, and often kids only.
8Senior & Special Needs Health Insurance
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Question 1
Medicare eligibility is generally available to U.S. citizens and qualified residents beginning at what age?
Why
Medicare's standard eligibility age is 65, the same age tied to its origins alongside Social Security. Certain younger people qualify too, such as those who have received Social Security disability for the required period. Hook: 65 is the magic Medicare age.
Question 2
Besides reaching age 65, a person may qualify for Medicare in which situation?
Why
People under 65 can get Medicare if they've received Social Security disability benefits for 24 months, and certain conditions (end-stage renal disease, ALS) qualify sooner. Hook: long-term disability, not just age 65, can open the Medicare door.
Question 3
Original Medicare consists of which two parts?
Why
Original Medicare is the combination of Part A (hospital insurance) and Part B (medical insurance). Parts C and D are the private add-on options (Advantage and prescription drugs). Hook: Original Medicare equals A plus B, hospital plus medical.
Question 4
The Initial Enrollment Period for Medicare is generally how long, centered on the person's 65th birthday month?
Why
The Initial Enrollment Period spans 7 months: the 3 months before your 65th-birthday month, that month itself, and the 3 months after. Enrolling on time avoids late penalties. Hook: a 7-month window, three before, the month of, and three after your 65th.
Question 5
For most people already receiving Social Security, enrollment in Medicare Part A at age 65 is generally what?
Why
People already drawing Social Security are usually enrolled in Part A automatically at 65, since Part A is premium-free for those with enough work credits. Part B enrollment may require action because it carries a premium. Hook: Part A usually arrives automatically when you're already on Social Security.
Question 6
Medicare Part A primarily covers which of the following?
Why
Part A is hospital insurance: it covers inpatient hospital stays, limited skilled nursing facility care, home health care, and hospice. Everyday doctor visits fall under Part B. Hook: Part A is the hospital side, inpatient, skilled nursing, home health, hospice.
Question 7
For most beneficiaries, Medicare Part A is financed how?
Why
Most people pay no premium for Part A because they (and their employers) already funded it through Medicare payroll taxes while working. Those without enough work credits can buy in by paying a premium. Hook: Part A is usually premium-free, paid for by a lifetime of FICA taxes.
Question 8
Medicare Part A coverage of skilled nursing facility care is best described as what?
Why
Part A pays for limited, short-term skilled nursing care after a qualifying hospital stay, with full coverage for an initial period and coinsurance after that, but it does not pay for ongoing custodial (long-term) care. That gap is a key reason people buy LTC insurance. Hook: Part A skilled nursing is short and skilled, not long-term custodial.
Question 9
Medicare Part A measures hospital and skilled nursing benefits using what?
Why
Part A uses benefit periods: one begins when you're admitted and ends after you've been out of a hospital or skilled nursing facility for 60 days in a row. A new stay after that starts a new benefit period (and a new deductible). Hook: a Part A benefit period resets only after 60 days fully out of care.
Question 10
Hospice care for a terminally ill Medicare beneficiary is covered under which part?
Why
Hospice care for the terminally ill is a Part A benefit, focused on comfort and support rather than cure. Hook: hospice rides under Part A, alongside the other inpatient-type benefits.
9Federal Tax Considerations — Health Insurance
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Question 1
Premiums an individual pays for their own personal health insurance are generally treated how for federal income tax?
Why
Personal health insurance premiums generally aren't deductible, though they may count toward the itemized medical expense deduction if total medical costs clear the AGI threshold. Hook: personal health premiums usually get no deduction, paid with after-tax dollars.
Question 2
Unreimbursed medical and dental expenses are deductible as an itemized deduction only to the extent they exceed what?
Why
Itemizers can deduct unreimbursed medical expenses, but only the portion that exceeds a set percentage of AGI (currently 7.5%). Expenses below that floor aren't deductible. Hook: only medical costs above the AGI floor count, and only if you itemize.
Question 3
Benefits received under a personal medical expense (health) policy that reimburse the insured for medical costs are generally treated how?
Why
Medical expense benefits simply reimburse what you spent on care, so they aren't treated as income and are received tax-free. You can't deduct the same expense the insurer reimbursed, though. Hook: getting paid back for medical bills isn't income, so it's tax-free.
Question 4
An insured deducts medical expenses on their tax return and is later reimbursed by their health insurer for those same expenses. What is the general tax result?
Why
You can't get a tax benefit twice for the same dollar. If you deducted a medical expense and the insurer later reimburses it, that reimbursed amount can become taxable to undo the earlier deduction. Hook: no double-dipping, deduct and then get reimbursed, and the reimbursement is pulled back into income.
Question 5
For most individuals who do not itemize deductions, personal health insurance premiums provide what tax benefit?
Why
Without itemizing, a typical individual gets no federal deduction for personal health premiums; they're paid with after-tax dollars. (Self-employed individuals are a notable exception, covered separately.) Hook: no itemizing usually means no deduction for your health premiums.
Question 6
Premiums paid by an individual for a personally owned disability income policy are generally treated how?
Why
Premiums for an individually owned disability income policy are not deductible; they're paid with after-tax dollars. That sets up the favorable treatment of the benefits. Hook: no deduction for personal DI premiums, you pay them after tax.
Question 7
Benefits received from an individually owned disability income policy (premiums paid with after-tax dollars) are generally treated how?
Why
Because the insured paid the premiums with after-tax dollars and got no deduction, the disability benefits come back income-tax-free. This is why individual DI benefits aren't reduced by taxes. Hook: after-tax premiums in means tax-free benefits out, the core DI rule.
Question 8
Which principle best summarizes how disability income benefits are taxed based on who paid the premium and how?
Why
The governing rule is symmetry: tax-free premiums going in lead to taxable benefits coming out, and after-tax premiums going in lead to tax-free benefits coming out. It applies across both individual and group disability coverage. Hook: the tax gets paid somewhere, either on the premium or on the benefit, never both and never neither.
Question 9
When an employer pays the premiums for a group disability income plan and deducts them as a business expense, how are the benefits taxed to the employee?
Why
If the employer paid (and deducted) the premiums and the employee was never taxed on them, the disability benefits are taxable to the employee when received; the tax simply shifts to the back end. Hook: employer-paid, employer-deducted DI premiums mean the employee is taxed on the benefits.
Question 10
If employees pay their own group disability income premiums with after-tax dollars, the benefits they later receive are generally what?
Why
When employees fund the premiums themselves with after-tax money, the resulting disability benefits come back tax-free, the same logic as an individually owned policy. Hook: employees paying after-tax premiums collect their DI benefits tax-free.